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On to step 2 in our exciting four chapter adventure of rigorously building up the measure theoretic foundations of Probability Theory! In Chapter 1 we formalised the key ingredients of a probabilistic experiment (cf. Definition 1.30) in the form of a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50): a set/universe \(\Omega\) that plays the role of the outcome space of our experiment, a \(\sigma\)-algebra (cf. Definition 1.33) \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\) that is the collection of our events (other subsets of \(\Omega\) that are not elements of \(\mathcal{F}\) we simply ignore and are not considered “valid” events), and a probability measure (cf. Definition 1.50) \(\P\) which is mapping \(\P: \mathcal{F} \to [0,1]\) that maps each event to a number that we understand as the probability/likelihood of that event happening if we execute the experiment.
What is the final key ingredient of the basic setup that we’re still missing? Well indeed, random variables! That’s what we’ll be spending most of this chapter on.
So what’s their purpose again? Often enough in the context of a (probabilistic) experiment like above, we are not so much/not only interested in the outcome of the experiment itself, but also in a certain characteristic of the outcome that can be expressed as real number i.e. we would like to “measure something” about the outcome. For instance, in the experiment of rolling \(n\) dice, we could be interested in how much the 3rd die yields. Or the largest value of the \(n\) dice. Or the average of the \(n\) dice. Or whatever.
Mathematically this means that we are talking about mapping elements from the outcome space \(\Omega\) to the real line according to a certain rule i.e. a mapping (or function) with as domain \(\Omega\) and as co-domain \(\R\). That’s all! Well, almost at least. ;).
Definition 2.1 (A (probabilistic) experiment with one or more random variable(s)) Recall from Definition 1.30 that in Probability Theory, we are always working in the context of a (probabilistic) experiment which, as we have seen in Definition 1.50, can be represented by a probability space i.e. a triple \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) consisting of an outcome space \(\Omega\), \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) containing all the events, and a probability measure \(\P: \mathcal{F} \to [0,1]\) that gives the probability/likelihood of happening of each event.
A random variable \(X\) is a mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) (satisfying a technical condition, cf. Definition 2.13) that measures a certain characteristic of each possible outcome \(\omega \in \Omega\) in terms of a real number. (It is custom in Probability Theory to use capital letters for labelling/naming random variables, but that’s of course just a choice.)
A “run” of the experiment then looks as follows:
This procedure is visualised in Figure 2.1 — this is maybe the most important visual in the whole course that we will be using again and again going forward!
Finally, it is very well possible to have multiple random variables on \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), in that case in step 3 above the observed outcome simply gets plugged into all of them so that they all take a value on the real line.
Example 2.2 (Example of random variables, and the technical condition required) Quick example: suppose that we roll \(n\) fair dice. Then we have finitely many possible outcomes and hence it is a simple experiment (in terms of Definition 1.31) for which it is easy to explicitly specify a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (as we also saw in Example 1.52 and Example 1.54 for instance):
Here are some examples of “candidate” random variables for this experiment/on this probability space:
Ok, fine, that’s of course all stuff you’ve seen before. But why do we write “candidate” above? Well here’s the thing. We are very used, from earlier Prob courses, to be able to talk about probabilities via random variables. For instance the probability that \(X\) takes a value larger than \(4\). Or that \(Y\) takes the value \(6\). Etc. That’s a key feature of working with random variables that we definitely need!
But “\(X\) takes a value larger than \(4\)” is a statement about what happens to \(X\) in its co-domain i.e. on the real line in Figure 2.1. And probabilities are determined by our \(\P\), which acts on events \(A \in \mathcal{F}\) rather so that’s a completely different location in Figure 2.1! However there is a very natural way to bridge that gap, as follows.
Let \(A \subseteq \Omega\) be the set of outcomes which, when they get plugged into \(X\), result in a value for \(X\) larger than \(4\). That is, \[A=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, X(\omega)>4 \}.\] If you look again at how \(X\) above is defined, it readily follows that we may also write \[A=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, \omega^{(2)}>4 \}.\] The point is that we now have created an event \(A\) (event, because we’re using the powerset as our \(\sigma\)-algebra and hence any subset is an event) which by very def satisfies \[\omega \in A \iff X(\omega)>4\] i.e. if we run the experiment (cf. Definition 2.1) and observe outcome \(\omega \in \Omega\), then \(X(\omega)>4\) is true and hence “\(X\) takes a value larger than \(4\)” holds if and only if \(\omega \in A\) i.e. the event \(A\) happens! And so we can very naturally define/understand the probability that “\(X\) takes a value larger than \(4\)” happens as the probability that \(A\) happens i.e. as \(\P(A)\)! :).
Of course we can do this in more generality: if we take any subset \(B \subseteq \R\) (where \(\R\) is the real line in Figure 2.1) and wonder what the probability is that \(X\) takes a value in \(B\), then this is naturally defined/understood as that the probability that the event \(A\) happens, which contains exactly all the outcomes \(\omega \in \Omega\) for which \(X(\omega) \in B\) holds. That is, naturally defined/understood as \(\P(A)\) where the event \(A\) is given by \[A=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, X(\omega) \in B \}. \tag{2.1}\]
Lovely — now we can talk about the probabilities that random variables take values in certain parts/subsets of the real line! There is just one technicality here. In this example we’re using for our \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) the powerset, and hence any subset of \(\Omega\) is an event and is assigned a probablity by our \(\P: \mathcal{F} \to [0,1]\). In particular hence also Equation 2.1 for whatever \(B \subseteq \R\) we choose. However as we have discussed in Chapter 1, in the case of an advanced experiment (cf. Definition 1.31) we’re typically forced to use a \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) that is smaller than the powerset. And since the probability measure \(\P: \mathcal{F} \to [0,1]\) then only assigns probabilities to some subsets of \(\Omega\) (namely the elements of \(\mathcal{F}\) i.e. our events, recall from Definition 1.50) but not all subsets, the above construction is only guaranteed to work if we know for sure that a subset of the form Equation 2.1 is actually an event i.e. element of \(\mathcal{F}\)!
That technicality we encountered in the final paragraph of the above example is something we desperately need to resolve first. Noting that a subset of \(\Omega\) of the form Equation 2.1 is nothing but an inverse image (or: pre-image) for our mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\), this naturally leads us to consider a property of mappings/functions called measurability, which is a general concept in the slightly more general measure theory world and we’ll introduce this in Section 2.2. With that concept on board, we can easily formulate an extra condition on a mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) to avoid the issue with subsets of the form Equation 2.1 potentially not being events to complete our actual definition of random variables. We’ll do this in Section 2.3.
As a next thing to do, obviously you already know a lot about random variables from earlier Prob courses, so let’s make the connection to see what stuff like a random variable’s distribution (I mean, what is it really, as a mathematical object?) and the distinction between discrete, continuous and “other” random variables looks like in our current context. This is collected in Section 2.4. In Section 2.5 we dot a few i’s in the situation that we have multiple random variables on a probability space, and talk about the well known concept of independence — a new aspect there is that you can also naturally define independence between \(\sigma\)-algebras! And finally in Section 2.7 we look at the idea that if you have a whole sequence of random variables on some probability space, then you can think about giving meaning to the idea that such a sequence has a limit (the limit value will then again be a random variable!).
As explained in Section 2.1, this section kind of stands on its own away from the Probability Theory context: we need to introduce and discuss the concept of a measurable function, something that we borrow from general measure theory, so that in Section 2.3 we can make use of it to complete our exact definition of random variables.
As context in this section, let \(\Omega\) be any set/universe and consider a real valued function/mapping (interchangeable terms in this course) \(f: \Omega \to \R\). Just to make sure we’re all on exactly the same track, let’s first recall some standard function related terminology:
Definition 2.3 (Domain, co-domain, range and inverse images of a function) If \(f: \Omega \to \R\) is a function, then \(\Omega\) is its domain, \(\R\) its co-domain and its range is the subset of the values in the co-domain that the function actually visits if you walk through the domain: \[\{ f(\omega) \, | \, \omega \in \Omega \} \subseteq \R.\]
Further, recall that for any subset \(B\) of the co-domain of \(f\) i.e. \(B \subseteq \R\), its inverse image or pre-image (under \(f\)) is the subset in the domain \(\Omega\) of \(f\) in which we collect all elements in \(\Omega\) that \(f\) maps into \(B\) and we denote it by \(f^{-1}(B)\): \[f^{-1}(B):=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, f(\omega) \in B \} \subseteq \Omega. \tag{2.2}\] By convention/definition, if \(B\) is the empty set then we understand its inverse image to be the empty set as well, i.e. \(f^{-1}(\emptyset):=\emptyset\).
Some notes:
Example 2.4 (Some examples of inverse images) Some quick examples of inverse images then — I’m sure you’ll remember them but they will be important for us, so good to make sure we’re all on board!
Firstly, if \(\Omega\) is finite (or countable) then the process of creating them can be nicely visualised as in Figure 2.2 for instance. But also otherwise it’s not very hard to derive them (if your function is not too annoying of course), and in the case \(\Omega=\R\) you could also use a visual method by drawing the graph of \(f\), finding the \(B\) you’re interested in on the vertical axis, and then simply checking which originals/values on the horizontal axis get mapped into that \(B\).
As an explicit example with \(\Omega=\R\), let’s take \(f(x)=x^2\). Then we have for instance (convince yourself!) that
Before marching on with the main topic of this section, let us make the observation that inverse images are very nicely behaved with some very useful properties (these properties do not necessarily hold for images, that’s one important reason why we prefer to work with inverse images here — cf. Exercise 2.1):
Lemma 2.5 (Some properties of inverse images [⛔]) Let \(f: \Omega \to \R\) be a function, and let \(B_1, B_2, \ldots\) (or \(B_1, \ldots, B_n\)) be a collection of subsets in the co-domain of \(f\) with inverse images as defined in Definition 2.3. Then:
Now we can look at the main definition in this section, namely what makes a function \(f: \Omega \to \R\) measurable. For this, we turn both the domain and co-domain of \(f\) into measurable spaces (cf. Definition 1.33) by choosing a \(\sigma\)-algebra on each of them: say \(\mathcal{F}\) on the domain \(\Omega\), and on the co-domain \(\R\) we always choose the Borel \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{B}(\R)\) (cf. Definition 1.41). Then we call \(f\) measurable if it “plays nice” with these two \(\sigma\)-algebras, in the sense that for any Borel set \(B \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\) in the co-domain, its inverse image is an element of \(\mathcal{F}\) i.e. \(f^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\).
Note that this property depends on the function \(f\) of course, but also on the \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on the domain \(\Omega\) we’re choosing: it’s very well possible that a given function \(f\) is measurable for some choices of such \(\sigma\)-algebras but not for others!
Definition 2.6 (Measurable functions) Let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F})\) be a measurable space (cf. Definition 1.33) and \(f:\Omega \to \R\) a function, where on the co-domain \(\R\) we use the Borel \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{B}(\R)\) (cf. Definition 1.41). Then \(f\) is called a measurable function if for any \(B \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\) it holds that \(f^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\) (cf. Definition 2.3).
If we want to stress the role of \(\mathcal{F}\) (e.g. because we consider multiple \(\sigma\)-algebras on \(\Omega\)), then we also use the term \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable function.
Further, in the special case that \((\Omega,\mathcal{F})=(\R,\mathcal{B}(\R))\) or \((\Omega,\mathcal{F})=(I,\mathcal{B}(I))\) for an interval \(I \subseteq \R\) (cf. Definition 1.41), so that we are in our familiar setting of a function \(f: \R \to \R\) or \(f: I \to \R\), then we also use the term Borel measurable function.
As we will see in the next Section 2.3 (and you may have already realised by now!), this measurability is exactly the property we need our random variables to have to resolve the difficulties we encountered in the final paragraph of Example 2.2! For the remainder of this section, we will look at some quick examples and formulate a few more useful results/concepts to have available as very handy tools as we go forward through the course.
Remark 2.7. Yeah, in Definition 2.6 appears yet another object that we call measurable, this time a function! Maybe it’s good to reiterate that we have used this same term in two earlier contexts already as well — just to avoid misunderstandings.
Example 2.8 (Simple example of a measurable function) Whenever you’re investigating some new concept, it’s always good to first look at the simplest examples you can think of! In the case of a function \(f:\Omega \to \R\) and whether or not it is measurable according to Definition 2.6, that simplest case would obviously be a constant function i.e. \(f:\Omega \to \R\) given by \(f(\omega)=c\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\), for some fixed \(c \in \R\).
Let’s look at what the inverse images (cf. Definition 2.3) of this guy tend to look like. It’s not very hard to convince yourself that that is quite easily done (for a visualisation, see Figure 2.3):
So that’s a very nice and tidy list of possibilities! :). Now, have another look at Definition 2.6: if we choose a \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\), then our constant function is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable if it holds that \(f^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\) for all Borel sets \(B\) in the co-domain \(\R\). But given the above limited list, that requirement simplifies to: \(\mathcal{F}\) needs to contain \(\emptyset\) and \(\Omega\) as elements. And as you’ll probably remember (or see Definition 1.33), any \(\sigma\)-algebra contains \(\emptyset\) and \(\Omega\). Hence our conclusion is that the constant function is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable no matter what \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\) we use!
As you can probably imagine, the constant function is the only one that is so accommodating of whatever \(\sigma\)-algebra we decide to use.
As we discussed in Definition 2.6 and also in Example 2.8, measurability of a given function \(f:\Omega \to \R\) depends on what \(\sigma\)-algebra we decide to use on the domain \(\Omega\). If we try to come up with a general rule for which one would work and which one wouldn’t, what would that look like? Well, according to Definition 2.6, a necessary and sufficient condition is that the \(\sigma\)-algebra in question contains each inverse image \(f^{-1}(B)\) for all Borel sets \(B\) i.e. that it contains each element of the collection \[\mathcal{C}=\left\{ \left. f^{-1}(B) \, \right| \, B \in \mathcal{B}(\R) \right\}.\] How do we come up with a \(\sigma\)-algebra that contains such a given collection? Well indeed, that’s exactly a nice job for the process of generating \(\sigma\)-algebras as discussed in Definition 1.36! It allows us to deduce that the smallest \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\) we can choose so that \(f\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable is the one generated by the collection of all these inverse images i.e. \[\mathcal{F}=\sigma(\mathcal{C}).\] Fine! But then there is even a little bit more! It turns out, if you think about it for a bit, that in fact the collection \(\mathcal{C}\) is itself already a \(\sigma\)-algebra, so we don’t need to add any “padding” to make it into a \(\sigma\)-algebra, rather we simply have that \[\mathcal{F}=\sigma(\mathcal{C})=\mathcal{C}\] (also recall Exercise 1.7).
Proposition 2.9 (About the sigma-algebra generated by a function) Let \(f: \Omega \to \R\) be a function. Consider the collection of subsets \(\mathcal{C}\) in the domain \(\Omega\) consisting of all inverse images \(f^{-1}(B)\) (cf. Definition 2.3) for all Borel sets \(B\) i.e. \[\mathcal{C}=\left\{ \left. f^{-1}(B) \, \right| \, B \in \mathcal{B}(\R) \right\}. \tag{2.3}\] Then \(\mathcal{C}\) is a \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\). We call it the \(\sigma\)-algebra generated by \(f\) and we denote it by \(\sigma(f)\).
Further, \(\sigma(f)\) is the smallest \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\) that makes \(f\) measurable, in the following sense: for any \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\), \(f\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable (cf. Definition 2.6) if and only if \(\sigma(f) \subseteq \mathcal{F}\).
Example 2.10 (The sigma-algebra generated by a constant function) Let’s revisit our constant function from Example 2.8: \(f: \Omega \to \R\) given by \(f(\omega)=c\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\), where \(c \in \R\) is fixed.
We saw in Example 2.10 already that any possible inverse image \(f^{-1}(B)\) for this function is rather trivially equal to either \(\emptyset\) or to \(\Omega\). So according to Proposition 2.9, the collection \[\sigma(f)=\{ \emptyset, \Omega \}\] is a \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\) (indeed, we had independently already seen this in Example 1.34).
Further according to Proposition 2.9, for any \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\), \(f\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable if and only if \(\sigma(f) \subseteq \mathcal{F}\). However, any \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\) contains \(\emptyset\) and \(\Omega\) as elements (cf. Definition 1.33) and hence satisfies \(\sigma(f) \subseteq \mathcal{F}\). So this statement from Proposition 2.9 boils down to: \(f\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable for any \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on \(\Omega\). And that is indeed perfectly consistent with the conclusion we had earlier already drawn in Example 2.8!
On to the final point in this section. You know, in principle Definition 2.6 provides a perfectly fine condition for measurability. But yeah, if in a given situation we have a not very trivial function and we want to check whether it’s measurable, then it tells us to first find out what the inverse images of all Borel sets are (and there’s many Borel sets, recall from Definition 1.41!) and then to show that each and every of them is an element of the \(\sigma\)-algebra we have on the domain. That’s, well, potentially a horrendous task! Luckily, over time a number of results have been proven providing sufficient conditions for measurability that are a lot easier to check. We list some of the most important ones in Proposition 2.11.
Proposition 2.11 (Alternative/sufficient conditions for measurability of functions) Let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F})\) be a measurable space (cf. Definition 1.33) and \(f:\Omega \to \R\) a function. Recall that we defined (Borel) measurability of functions in Definition 2.6. Then we have (see e.g. Williams 1991, chap. 3; Stroock 1994, sec. 3.2; Kallenberg 1997, chap. 1):
Some notes:
So, if you want to prove that some given function is measurable, then rather than going via Definition 2.6 you typically want to try the following strategy:
Note that all the constructions in property v are point wise, that is, in each case you fix some \(x \in \Omega\) and then take the supremum/infimum/limit of the sequence of real numbers \(f_1(x), f_2(x), \ldots\) to construct \(g(x)\). Rinse and repeat that for all other elements in \(\Omega\). Recall that any set in \(\R\) (hence including such a sequence of real numbers) has a supremum (=smallest upper bound) and infimum (=largest lower bound) although they may be \(\infty\) and \(-\infty\) respectively. See e.g. Wiki if you’d like a quick refresher.
There is a technicality kind of annoying us in v: in each of three forms, despute the fact that the \(f_n\)’s are real valued, it is well possible that \(g\) also takes the value \(-\infty\) or \(\infty\). This is not an actual problem, you can extend our discussion so far in the (more or less) obvious way to include these possibilities explicitly by considering what is called the extended real line. A proper measure theory course will deal with this properly, but for us that’s not the key focus. So we’re letting this be, and of course with my promise that this will never catch you out in any assessment. If you’re interested in details, then see e.g. Stroock (1994).
It is not a coincidence that in i above we again encounter the collection of intervals in \(\R\) that was also of fundamental importance in Subsection 1.6.2 in the same role: actually we have to do/check something for any Borel set, but it turns out that it is sufficient to do/check it for these intervals!
Example 2.12 (Checking measurability of the constant function using the alternative strategy) Ok, one more time that constant function from Example 2.8 & Example 2.10 then: \(f: \Omega \to \R\) given by \(f(\omega)=c\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\), where \(c \in \R\) is fixed. Let \(\mathcal{F}\) be some \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\).
Let’s check, from scratch and using the in general easier method provided by Proposition 2.11 i rather than the definition from Definition 2.6, whether or not \(f\) is measurable. So following Proposition 2.11 i, we need to look at inverse images of the form \(f^{-1}((-\infty,a])\) for all \(a \in \R\). Recall from Definition 2.3 what this means again: \(f^{-1}((-\infty,a])\) is the subset consisting of all \(\omega \in \Omega\) that are mapped into the interval \((-\infty,a]\) by \(f\) or, more mathematically, \[f^{-1}((-\infty,a])=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, f(\omega) \in (-\infty,a] \}.\]
If you feel even a tiny bit insecure about doing this correctly, then I’d always strongly recommend to go about this as follows. Imagine the co-domain of \(f\) i.e. the real line. Start with \(a\) “very close” to \(-\infty\) and then imagine it travelling over the real line all the way up to \(\infty\). For every value of \(a\) along that journey, investigate which \(\omega \in \Omega\) get mapped into the interval \((-\infty,a]\) and hence jointly make up the inverse image \(f^{-1}((-\infty,a])\). This gives a natural flow: as \(a\) grows and the interval \((-\infty,a]\) gets larger as well, you cover an increasingly large part of the real line and hence your inverse images \(f^{-1}((-\infty,a])\), as subsets of \(\Omega\), grow as well.
Executing that strategy in this particular example of a constant function, you quickly see the following (see Figure 2.4 for visuals):
So, if we now introduce a \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) on the domain \(\Omega\) and apply the criterion from Proposition 2.11 i, then it follows that \(f\) is measurable if and only if \(\mathcal{F}\) contains both \(\emptyset\) and \(\Omega\) as its elements. And so, exactly as in Example 2.8 & Example 2.10, we can again conclude that \(f\) is measurable for any \(\mathcal{F}\), since any \(\sigma\)-algebra contains these two elements.
You can now do Exercise 2.1–Exercise 2.3.
Ok, time to segway back into our Probability setting now! We pick things up at the end of Section 2.1: we are in the context of a probabilistic experiment represented by a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) and we have a mapping \(X : \Omega \to \R\) that we want to use as a random variable exactly like we are used to from our earlier Prob courses. In Example 2.2 we saw that this means one thing in particular: we want to be able to talk about “the probability that \(X\) takes a value in \(B\)” (or: “ends up in \(B\)”), where \(B\) is some subset of \(\R\) (the co-domain of \(X\)). Meaning: if we run the experiment (cf. Definition 2.1 & Figure 2.1 (b)) and observe the value that \(X\) takes i.e. \(X(\omega) \in \R\) where \(\omega \in \Omega\) is the observed outcome of the experiment, then \(X\) may take a value in \(B\) (i.e. \(X(\omega) \in B\)) or not (i.e. \(X(\omega) \not\in B\)). How likely/probable is it that the former happens (and hence not the latter)?
We discussed in Example 2.2 how we can’t answer this question as-is, because it is about what happens on the real line i.e. in the co-domain of \(X\), while probabilities are defined by our probability measure \(\P\) which only works on our events i.e. the elements of \(\mathcal{F}\), which live in \(\Omega\) i.e. in the domain of \(X\)!
However thanks to the concepts we discussed in Section 2.2 above, we can now resolve this conundrum and give a firm mathematical definition of such probabilities involving \(X\)! For this, make the following two assumptions:
Now consider the inverse image \(X^{-1}(B) \subseteq \Omega\) i.e. (cf. Definition 2.3) \[X^{-1}(B)=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, X(\omega) \in B \}\] and observe the following tautology if we run the experiment and observe the outcome \(\omega\): \[\begin{align*} \text{"$X$ takes a value in $B$"} &\iff X(\omega) \in B \\ &\iff \omega \in X^{-1}(B) \\ &\iff X^{-1}(B) \text{ happens}. \end{align*} \tag{2.4}\] Here’s the crucial point: thanks to our assumptions 1 and 2 above, it is now guaranteed that \(X^{-1}(B)\) is an event i.e. that \(X^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\) i.e. that \(X^{-1}(B)\) is in the domain of our \(\P\) and that our \(\P\) gives the probability of it happening! And hence we can very naturally understand/define: \[\text{"the probability that $X$ takes a value in $B$"} := \P \left( X^{-1}(B) \right). \tag{2.5}\] There we have it! :). See also Figure 2.5 for a visual.
Definition 2.13 (Random variables) Let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) be a probability space (cf. Definition 1.50). A random variable on this space is an \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable (cf. Definition 2.6) mapping \(\Omega \to \R\).
If \(X\) is a random variable and \(B\) is a Borel set in its co-domain, then we can naturally understand/define \[\text{"the probability that $X$ takes a value in $B$"} := \P \left( X^{-1}(B) \right), \tag{2.6}\] where \(X^{-1}(B)\) is in the inverse image of \(B\) under \(X\) (cf. Definition 2.3), and the measurability of \(X\) guarantees that \(X^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\) so that the right hand side of Equation 2.6 is well defined. This mechanism is visualised in Figure 2.5.
Some notes:
Example 2.14 (Constant random variables) As we consistely did in Section 2.2, let’s also look here at the simplest example we can think of: let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) be some probability space (cf. Definition 1.50), and consider the constant mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) given by \(X(\omega)=c\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\), where \(c \in \R\) is fixed.
As we saw in Example 2.8 and Example 2.12 already, such a mapping is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable no matter what \(\mathcal{F}\) we’re using as part of our probability space, and hence by Definition 2.13 above it is indeed a random variable.
So in particular we’re able to talk about probabilities that \(X\) takes certain values:
These are of course exactly the values that you would expect to find right! Note that the second case includes also the special case \(B=\{c\}\), and in this case we commonly write the conclusion “\(\P(X^{-1}(\{c\}))=1\)” in the shorter form “\(\P(X=c)=1\)” as explained in Definition 2.13.
Example 2.15 (Another example of a random variable: the identity mapping) Here’s another one. Suppose that in one of your earlier Probability courses would encounter the phrase “Let \(X\) denote a real number arbitrarily chosen from the interval \([0,1]\)”. How would we, with all our fancy shizzle new concepts, now properly translate this probabilistic experiment (cf. Definition 2.1) into solid maths (rather than blindly believing that we can!)?
Well obviously what we need to do is fined a probability space and a random variable \(X\) defined on it, which capture the (intended) meaning of that phrase above. As we have mentioned before, there’s always a multitude of different perfectly suitabley choices we could make for this. One easy option, if we look back at Example 1.58, is to use the probability space \(([0,1],\mathcal{B}([0,1]),\lambda)\), where \(\lambda\) is the Lebesgue measure from Proposition 1.56. If we run the experiment for this probability space, then we observe as outcome an element from the outcome space \([0,1]\), and, as discussed in that example, the “reality” that \(\lambda\) imposes is that each number is (roughly speaking) equally likely to be chosen. Ok! So running this experiment is already giving us what we need, without including a random variable at all!
What if we nevertheless do desperately want a random variable? Well then we simply choose the mapping that doesn’t change anything about the outcome of the experiment i.e. the identity mapping \(X: [0,1] \to \R\) given by \(X(\omega)=\omega\). Would you agree that if we now run this experiment including \(X\) and look at the value that \(X\) takes (cf. Definition 2.1), then this is indeed giving us the “real number arbitrarily chosen from the interval \([0,1]\)” that we were looking for?
Of course, we still need to check that \(X\) is actually a random variable i.e. \(\mathcal{B}([0,1])\)-measurable mapping (cf. Definition 2.13). Let’s follow the recommended strategy for that, i.e. Proposition 2.11 i (the inverse images are all pretty straightforward to work out using their def from Definition 2.3 and the simple form that \(X\) has, nevertheless if you have any doubts then make visuals in the same vein as in Figure 2.4 where now \(\Omega=[0,1]\) and \(X\) is the identity mapping as defined above!):
Fine! But ehm, could we have done this final check any quicker? Well actually yes! If you take another good look at Proposition 2.11, and in particular at part ii, then that covers the situation we’re dealing with here, with \(I=[0,1]\)! Using that result, all we need to do is convince ourselves that \(X: [0,1] \to \R\) given by \(X(\omega)=\omega\) is continuous (with at most countably many discontinuities).
But obviously it is continuous! Don’t let the notation fool you here — this \(X\) is (for this purpose) “just” a function. Its name, \(X\) or otherwise, doesn’t matter — after all, what’s in a name people! Neither does it matter what symbol we use for its argument(s), recall e.g. Remark 1.5. I mean, if rather than “\(X: [0,1] \to \R\) given by \(X(\omega)=\omega\)” we would have written “\(f: [0,1] \to \R\) given by \(f(x)=x\)”, which is exactly the same function, just with a different name, then you would have immediately said “yep, that one’s continuous!” no?
Example 2.16 (Creating new random variables from existing ones) Just to quickly point out: since the defining requirement in Definition 2.13 for a mapping to be a random variable is measurability, the results from Proposition 2.11 can come in extremely handy to quickly build new random variables from existing ones! For instance, on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) we have all of the following (as you can and should readily check!):
Note that in the above, we do “algebra with random variables” and the defining expressions for the new random variables are to be understood in pointwise mode, i.e. as equalities between functions/mappings. For instance the definition \(Y=5X^2\) is to be read as: \(Y(\omega)=5X(\omega)^2\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\) (cf. Subsection 2.3.1).
Lovely! We have two more things about random variables in general that we would like to highlight here, which we’ll do in the two subsections below. And then we move on to Section 2.4, in which we’ll discuss how certain properties of random variables that you know (or do you really?? ;)) from earlier Probability courses (what their distribution is, and whether they are discrete or continuous) translate to our firm framework. In fact, we’ll see that a major bonus of our framework is that it allows us to properly define what the distribution of a random variable actually is!
You can now do Exercise 2.4–Exercise 2.6.
Here we just want to highlight some practical aspects of how Probabilists tend to do algebra with random variables.
Firstly, in a context where all capital letters represent random variables on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), our reasoning regularly involves (in)equalities involving random variables. Stuff like “Note that \(X>2\).” or “Since \(X=Y\) we also have that \(X^2=Y^2\).” or whatever. Whenever you see such an (in)equality, then recall that at their core, random variables are mappings and that such (in)equalities are (hence) to be understood in that sense. I mean, if \(f\) and \(g\) are two functions on some domain \(D\), then you’ll naturally take the statement “\(f=g\)” to mean that they are identical functions i.e. that \(f(x)=g(x)\) for all \(x \in D\). That’s exactly the same here: “Note that \(X>2\).” is shorthand for “Note that \(X(\omega)>2\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\).”, “Since \(X=Y\) we also have that \(X^2=Y^2\).” is shorthand for “Since \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\) we also have that \(X(\omega)^2=Y(\omega)^2\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\).” etc. We also refer (and will sometimes explicitly say this) to such (in)equalities as pointwise (as in: for every point in the domain). We saw this already in action in Example 2.16.
In Probablity Theory, we are often forced to reason in a slightly weaker “mode” than pointwise, namely in the almost sure “mode” (recall that we introduced almost sure events and null events in Definition 1.55). To make the distinction clear, in this case we always (should!) add a suitable qualifier which we often do via the abbreviation “a.s.”. For instance “Note that \(X>2\) a.s..” or “Since \(X=Y\) a.s. we also have that \(X^2=Y^2\) a.s..” The general definition of this “mode” is that it requires the (in)equality to hold on some almost sure event, but may fail to hold on the complement of that event (which is then necessarily a null event, cf. Exercise 1.12 i). So indeed slightly weaker than pointwise: the statement may fail to hold for some \(\omega \in \Omega\), as long as these \(\omega\)’s collected together make up (or are contained in) a null event.
That is, the statement “Note that \(X>2\) a.s..” is written out as “Note that there exists an almost sure event \(A \in \mathcal{F}\) so that \(X(\omega)>2\) for all \(\omega \in A\).”. And the statement “Since \(X=Y\) a.s. we also have that \(X^2=Y^2\) a.s..” is written out as “Since there exists an almost sure event \(A_1 \in \mathcal{F}\) so that \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\) for all \(\omega \in A_1\), we also have that there exists an almost sure event \(A_2 \in \mathcal{F}\) so that \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\) for all \(\omega \in A_2\).”
You’ll get gradually more used to this “mode” as we start using it more, promise!
The particularly critical thinkers among you might get slightly worried by all of this, because when we normally reason with (in)equalities, then we also like to use some well established principles that are deeply engrained in our systems. An example of such a principle is transitivity, which is the principle that if \(a=b\) and \(b=c\), then it follows that \(a=c\). Above we have introduced a novel definition of equality, namely in “almost sure mode”. Does this principle then still hold: if \(X,Y,Z\) are three random variables on our probability space and we know that \(X=Y\) a.s. and \(Y=Z\) a.s., is it then also true that \(X=Z\) a.s.? The reassuring answer is yes (and it is a direct consequence of Exercise 1.12!)! Long story short, because limited time etc.: the “almost sure mode” works as you would expect/hope.
Remark 2.17. Fundamentally, the reason that we’re often forced to go into “almost sure mode” is that a lot of our reasoning and results concern probabilities of events. And, as we already saw in Definition 1.55 and Example 1.54, in case \(\Omega\) is uncountable (i.e. the advanced experiments category from Definition 1.31), if the probability measure is our pair of glasses through which we look at things, then we simply can’t see any distinction between say \(\Omega\) and another event \(A\) that is a little bit smaller than \(\Omega\) but also has probability \(1\)!
It’s like your poor old dad with his reading glasses on trying to read the subtitles on TV. They give him a pretty good vision, but not perfect. If you were to alter a subtitle by adding an extra letter but in extremely small font size, then your dad won’t be able to tell the difference, for him the original and the altered subtitle are the same thing!
In fact, for those of you who like their Pure maths/are interested: if we make this slightly more formal by seeing events whose symmetric difference is a null event as “equivalent”, then this creates a proper equivalence relation and you can go down the path of looking at quotient sets and all kinds of scary things — a popular passtime for people active in the field of Ergodic Theory for instance!
In this short subsection we’ll have a quick look at one possible way to interpret measurability of a random variable, from the point of view that we can think about \(\sigma\)-algebras as representing a certain “level of information” about the outcome of the experiment as we first discussed in Proposition 1.45.
Let me ask you something. If you think about running an experiment with outcome space \(\Omega\) and a random variable \(X\) (cf. Definition 2.1), do you then always need to know exactly the observed outcome \(\omega \in \Omega\) to deduce \(X(\omega)\) i.e. what value \(X\) takes? Well if you think about it, it would also be enough to have the following two bits of info:
right? For example, in the case of Figure 2.1, if \(A:=\{\omega_2,\omega_3\}\) happens then that is enough to know the value that \(X\) takes, we don’t necessarily need to know which of \(\omega_2\) or \(\omega_3\) is the observed outcome no? In that example, the same would be true for the singletons \(\{\omega_1\}\), \(\{\omega_4\}\) and \(\{\omega_5\}\), but that’s more trivial as knowing that a singleton happens is the same as exactly knowing the observed outcome of course!
Let’s colour this in a bit. Let \(\mathcal{F}\) be a \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\). Recall that in Proposition 1.45 we said that, a bit loosely speaking but it’s a loosely defined concept: the “level of information” \(\mathcal{F}\) represents about where the (unknown) outcome exactly is in \(\Omega\) is that we’re told which elements of \(\mathcal{F}\) happen. In what situation is that “level of information” also enough to deduce what value \(X\) takes i.e. what \(X(\omega)\) is? Looking again at Figure 2.1 for some inspiration, would you agree that in that case, as long as \(\mathcal{F}\) contains \(\{\omega_1\}\), \(\{\omega_2,\omega_3\}\), \(\{\omega_4\}\) and \(\{\omega_5\}\) it does indeed represent a sufficient level of information for that purpose (in particular, it doesn’t need to contain the individual singletons \(\{\omega_2\}\) and \(\{\omega_3\}\))?
My claim is that, indeed, measurability of a mapping on the one hand and representing a sufficient “level of information” to deduce the value that that mapping takes on the other hand are just two different sides of exactly the same coin!
Proposition 2.18 (Measurability vs “level of information”) Let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F})\) be a measurable space (cf. Definition 1.33) and \(X:\Omega \to \R\) a mapping. Then the following are equivalent:
If \(\mathcal{F}\) is finite then this equivalence can be made mathematically rigorous (see below), otherwise if \(\mathcal{F}\) is not finite then we leave this at an intuitive level only.
Let’s see if we can indeed make this equivalence firm for a finite \(\mathcal{F}\). (Note that we’re not using the usual terms “events” and “happening” here, but that’s just because of the slightly more general context). Recall that \(\mathcal{F}\) being finite means that it has atoms, i.e. a sequence \(A_1, \ldots, A_n\) of elements of \(\mathcal{F}\) that form a partition of \(\Omega\) and are its “smallest” elements (well, other than \(\emptyset\)), cf. Proposition 1.38. Further recall from Example 1.48 that the “level of information” represented by this \(\mathcal{F}\) is boils down to being told which of its atoms contain the unknown outcome (necessarily always exactly one!). So the equivalence from Proposition 2.18 can be rewritten as:
Now, which mappings \(X: \Omega \to \R\) satisfy the second statement? Indeed, it is exactly all mappings that are constant on each \(A_i\) i.e. for which \(c_1,\ldots,c_n \in \R\) exist so that if \(\omega \in A_i\), then \(X(\omega)=c_i\). Using this we can further rewrite the equivalence to the two statements:
Now let’s actually prove this equivalence, by breaking it up in two implications as per Definition 1.2 iv:
ii \(\implies\) i: suppose that statement ii holds. Pick some Borel set \(B \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\) and consisder the inverse image \(X^{-1}(B)\) (cf. Definition 2.3). Note that if \(B\) doesn’t contain any of the \(c_1,\ldots,c_n\), then \(X^{-1}(B)=\emptyset\). If \(B\) contains say \(c_i\) but none of the others, then \(X^{-1}(B)=A_i\). If \(B\) contains say \(c_i\) and \(c_j\) but none of the others, then \(X^{-1}(B)=A_i \cup A_j\). Etc., the pattern is clear: \(X^{-1}(B)\) is either \(\emptyset\), or one of the \(A_i\)’s, or some union of two or more of the \(A_i\)’s. And these are indeed all elements of \(\mathcal{F}\) (cf. Subsection 1.5.2)! So we can conclude that indeed \(X^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\), and hence statement i follows (cf. Definition 2.6). Note: you could also very well use the criterion from Proposition 2.11 i here rather than the def from Definition 2.6!
i \(\implies\) ii: let’s pull here our cute “proof by contraposition” card (cf. Definition 1.2 ii): we may equally well prove that not ii \(\implies\) not i. So assume that \(X\) is not constant on each atom \(A_1,\ldots,A_n\), i.e. that there exists an atom, say \(A_i\), where \(X\) takes at least two different values, say \(b_1, b_2 \in \R\). Consider the singleton \(\{b_1\}\), which is a Borel set (cf. Exercise 1.9 i for instance). Consider the set \(C:=X^{-1}(\{b_1\}) \cap A_i \subseteq \Omega\). Observe that \(C \subset A_i\) (strict subset, because there are also \(\omega \in A_i\) for which \(X(\omega)=b_2\)). Looking at the structure of \(\mathcal{F}\), as laid out in Subsection 1.5.2, it is then also immediately clear that \(C \not\in \mathcal{F}\). Ok. Now let’s also put some “proof by contradiction” in the mix! Assume that \(X\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable. Then \(X^{-1}(\{b_1\}) \in \mathcal{F}\) (by Definition 2.6) and hence also \(C=X^{-1}(\{b_1\}) \cap A_i \in \mathcal{F}\) (“closed under countable unions”, recall from Proposition 1.35). But this is a contradiction, since we already deduced that \(C \not\in \mathcal{F}\). Hence the assumption that \(X\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable cannot hold and we must conclude that \(X\) is not \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable, as we were looking to do.
Lovely! We’ve made some good progress already in our formalisation of the foundations of Probability Theory: we have discussed probability spaces (cf. Definition 1.50) and random variables (cf. Definition 2.13), so that we have all the ingredients that make up (our model of) a probabilistic experiment (cf. Definition 2.1). What more have you seen in your earlier Probability courses? Well, doing stuff with these random variables! Computing probabilities is at the core of that (which we can do already, cf. Definition 2.13) but a lot flows from that ability: distributions and hence pmf’s/pdf’s, computing expectations of (functions of) random variables, and the concept of conditioning!
In this section we’ll cover distributions plus pmf’s/pdf’s, and computing expectations of (functions of) random variables for the special cases of discrete and continuous random variables. As we will briefly highlight when we get there in this section and investigate more fully in Chapter 3, one of the many benefits of our rigorous setup-from-scratch is that it also puts us in a position to develop a Unifying Theory of Expectation: it turns out that these seemingly very different expressions for expectation (summation for discrete random variables, integral for continuous random variables) are just special cases of one master expression that holds for any random variable! For conditioning a similar story applies: we will be able to take a (somewhat) novel approach to it, encapsulating and extending what you could do already — we’ll leave this for Chapter 4.
Fine, so let’s put ourselves in the context of a probability space with a random variable. Let me ask you something: what is the distribution of a random variable? “Ehm what Kees? Well that depends on the random variable right, I mean, I know about Poisson distributions and Exponential distributions and”. Let me stop you there for a moment — these are specific examples of distributions, sure, but what is a distribution in general, as a mathematical object? “Ehm… ?”. Fair enough! It’s one of those things that you’re actually typically not told about in earlier Probability courses (exactly because the rigorous context is missing!). Let’s make up for that shocking hole in your upbringing! ;).
Example 2.19 (Exploring the idea of distributions: the “behaviour” of random variables on the real line) Let’s create some feel for the situation. Take again the example visualised in Figure 2.1 (quickly review it!): we have that \(\Omega=\{\omega_1,\ldots,\omega_5\}\), which is finite and hence we are in the soothing setting of what we called a simple experiment in Definition 1.31, and as we’ve seen in Example 1.54 it is in this case very easy to make valid explicit choices for the other ingredients:
Ok, that completes the full setup of our probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) with a random variable \(X\) (of course, we should check that \(X\) satisfies the measurability condition in Definition 2.13 but that’s immediate in this case, cf. Exercise 2.4).
As final addition to the structure, as we discussed in Definition 2.13, cf. Equation 2.5 in particular, we can naturally talk about the probability that if we run the experiment, \(X\) takes its value in a Borel set \(B\) on the real line, via \(\P(X \in B)=\P(X^{-1}(B))\). In this example we can for instance walk through all the values that \(X\) takes on the real line, and compute for each the probability that \(X\) takes that particular value — check these comps for yourself to reinforce the mechanism via inverse images, and recall that singletons are Borel (cf. Definition 1.41): \[\P(X=1)=\P \left( X^{-1}(\{1\}) \right)=\P(\{\omega_1\})=0.1, \tag{2.7}\] and similarly \[\P(X=5)=0.2 \quad \text{and} \quad \P(X=6)=0.2. \tag{2.8}\] Further \[\begin{align*} \P(X=3) &= \P \left( X^{-1}(\{3\}) \right) \\ &= \P(\{\omega_2,\omega_3\}) \\ &= \P(\{\omega_2\})+\P(\{\omega_3\}) \\ &=0.1+0.4 \\ &=0.5, \end{align*} \tag{2.9}\] where the third equality uses countable additivity (cf. Definition 1.50).
Alrighty, that’s the whole structure discussed in detail — for a nice visual showing all of this, specialising the one from Figure 2.1, see Figure 2.6 (a).
Now let’s look at this: what would the expectation of this \(X\) i.e. \(\E[X]\) be (just based on old knowledge from earlier Prob courses)? Well you would probably recognise it as a discrete random variable, with range i.e. set of possible values (cf. Definition 2.3) \(\{1,3,5,6\}\), and you’ll probably remember that \(\E[X]\) can be computed as the sum of the possible values that \(X\) can take multiplied with the corresponding probabilities i.e. \[\begin{align*} \E[X] &= \sum_{k \in \{1,3,5,6\}} k \P(X=k) \\ &= 1 \cdot 0.1+ 3 \cdot 0.5 + 5 \cdot 0.2 + 6 \cdot 0.2 \\ &= 3.8. \end{align*} \] If we now stare at this for a bit, then we realise that \(\E[X]\) only depends on what happens in the bottom bit of Figure 2.6 (a), cf. Figure 2.6 (b): in words, how \(X\) “behaves on the real line”: what values \(X\) takes there and with what probabilities! And if you think a bit about it, then this is not only true for \(\E[X]\) but also for \(\E[g(X)]\) for a function \(g: \R \to \R\) via \[\E[g(X)] = \sum_{k \in \{1,3,5,6\}} g(k) \P(X=k)\] and this then also covers any distributional property of \(X\): variance, skewness, moments of any type, generating functions etc. etc.!
This “behaviour of \(X\) on the real line” is, albeit in a somewhat loose formulation, exactly what the distribution of \(X\) is! Note that even though all other parts in the structure, the bits that have been made almost fully transparent in Figure 2.6 (b), on the one hand do contribute to/determine how \(X\) behaves on the real line i.e. the distribution of \(X\), on the other hand, once we know what that behaviour/distribution of \(X\) is, that is all we need to do any “distributional” computations with \(X\).
A final point to make here, and that is actually the central claim: to fully know how \(X\) behaves on the real line, and hence what its distribution is, we don’t even need to be told what values \(X\) takes on the real line, we only need to know the following collection of probabilities: \[\P(X \in B) \quad \text{for all } B \in \mathcal{B}(\R) \tag{2.10}\] (i.e. for all Borel sets \(B\) on the real line/in the co-domain of \(X\), cf. Definition 2.13).
Why? Well if we have Equation 2.10, then we can in particular deduce the probabilities Equation 2.7–Equation 2.9 (just choose \(B=\{1\}\), \(B=\{3\}\), \(B=\{5\}\) and \(B=\{6\}\) in Equation 2.10), as well as that \(\P(\R \setminus \{1,3,5,6\})=0\). This fully reconstructs the picture in Figure 2.6 (b)!
It turns out that the Big Claim that Example 2.19 is making indeed holds in general: if \(X\) is a random variable on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), then just knowing the collection of probabilities Equation 2.10 is sufficient to compute any distributional property of \(X\), in particular the expectation of (a function of) \(X\) and anything that further gives us access to (as mentioned in Example 2.19 as well: variance, skewness, moments of any type, generating functions etc. etc.). Obviously we need to carefully flesh this out! We’ll do that in two steps:
Ok, so let’s kick off with step 1 above first! As for a name, well indeed, we call it the distribution of \(X\):
Definition 2.20 (The distribution of a random variable) Let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) be a probability space (cf. Definition 1.50) and \(X: \Omega \to \R\) a random variable (cf. Definition 2.13). We define (recall that \(\mathcal{B}(\R)\) is the Borel \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\R\), cf. Definition 1.41) \[\mu_X(B):=\P(X \in B) \in [0,1] \quad \text{for all } B \in \mathcal{B}(\R). \tag{2.11}\] Then this collection of values, \(\mu_X(B)\) for all \(B \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\), is called the distribution (or law) of \(X\).
Further we have the following interesting view point: if we take the co-domain \(\R\) of \(X\) as universe with the \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{B}(\R)\) on it as well as the mapping \(\mu_X: \mathcal{B}(\R) \to [0,\infty]\) as given by Equation 2.11, then the triplet \((\R,\mathcal{B}(\R),\mu_X)\) is a probability space as defined in Definition 1.50. The converse is also true: if on the measurable space \((\R,\mathcal{B}(\R))\) you take any probability measure \(\mu\), then there exists a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) and a random variable \(X\) so that the distribution \(\mu_X\) of \(X\) satisfies \(\mu_X=\mu\).
Some notes:
Example 2.21 (Different random variables with the same distribution) In Example 2.19 and Definition 2.20 we go from probability space plus random variable to a (unique) distribution, and then an interesting question is whether we can also go the other way around: given some distribution, can we (uniquely) rebuild the probablity space plus random variable that generated it? The answer to that is a clear “no, not uniquely” — in fact it’s quite easy to come up with examples of quite different choices for a probability space plus a random variable that all lead to the same distribution!
For example, take \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) where \(\Omega=\{\omega_1,\omega_2\}\), \(\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{P}(\Omega)\) and \(\P: \mathcal{F} \to [0,1]\) with \(\P(\{\omega_1\})=\P(\{\omega_2\})=1/2\) (recall that this is all guaranteed to be valid as \(\Omega\) is finite and hence it’s a “simple” experiment, recall from Example 1.54). Consider the two random variables \(X,Y:\Omega \to \R\) given by (as in Example 2.19, measurability is immediate from Exercise 2.4) \[X(\omega_1)=0, \quad X(\omega_2)=1; \quad \text{and} \quad Y(\omega_1)=1, \quad Y(\omega_2)=0\] (make a visual as in Figure 2.6 (a) for this and the below if you find that helpful!!!).
If we look at working out the distribution of \(X\) as defined in Definition 2.20, you’ll quickly realise that any Borel set \(B\) in the co-domain of \(X\) falls into one of four cases:
And if you now do work out the distribution of \(Y\) denoted by \(\mu_Y\), you’ll quickly realise that you get exactly the same cases with exactly the same values! That is, we have that \(\mu_X(B)=\mu_Y(B)\) for all Borel sets \(B\) i.e. \(X\) and \(Y\) have the same distribution!
And we can make things even more wild if you’d like: consider the probability space \((\Omega=[0,1],\mathcal{B}([0,1]),\P)\) where \(\P\) is the Lebesgue measure (cf. Proposition 1.56 and Example 2.15). Consider \(Z : \Omega \to \R\) given by \(Z(\omega)=0\) if \(\omega \in (1/4,3/4)\) and \(Z(\omega)=1\) if \(\omega \in [0,1/4] \cup [3/4,1]\). We would need to do a bit of work to show that \(Z\) is measurable and hence a random variable, but we have done a very similar case before in Example 2.15 so I’ll leave that up to you.
What do we get if we work out the distribution \(\mu_Z\) of \(Z\)? You guessed it, again the same one — \(Z\) has the same distribution as \(X\) and \(Y\)! Indeed, you can again split all Borel sets \(B\) in the same four cases (i.e. depending on whether or not \(0\) and \(1\) are elements), you’ll find that the inverse images \(Z^{-1}(B)\) is one of \(\emptyset\) (with \(\P(\emptyset)=0\) by Definition 1.50 i), \((1/4,3/4)\) (with \(\P((1/4,3/4))=1/2\) by Proposition 1.56 i), \([0,1/4] \cup [3/4,1]\) (with \(\P([0,1/4] \cup [3/4,1])=1/2\) by countable additivity, cf. Definition 1.50, and Equation 1.19), and \(\Omega\) (with \(\P(\Omega)=1\) either by Definition 1.50 since \(\P\) is a probability measure or since \(\Omega=[0,1]\) and Equation 1.19).
Final question then: do you recognise this distribution that \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\) all three share as one that you have seen before in an earlier Probability course? Maybe less obviously so from the maths we did above, but what if we describe the “behaviour” of all of these random variables on the real line in words: they take the value \(0\) with prob \(1/2\) and the value \(1\) with prob \(1/2\)? Well indeed, your very good old friend the Bernoulli distribution with parameter \(1/2\)! :).
We said above Definition 2.20 that as part of step 1, we also wanted to look at a simpler representation of distributions. I mean, the whole collection Equation 2.11 is fine but there are so awfully many Borel sets so it’s such a large collection! The good news is that we can indeed simplify this representation somewhat, and the even better news that we done all the hard work for that already! We have several times already been in situations in which we need/have something “for all Borel sets i.e. elements of \(\mathcal{B}(\R)\)”, but where it actually turns out be sufficient to only need/have that thing for the much smaller subset of \(\mathcal{B}(\R)\) that is formed by all intervals of the form \((-\infty,x]\) for \(x \in \R\). We saw this collection pop up in Lemma 1.59, where we showed that it generates \(\mathcal{B}(\R)\), and we saw it for instance in action in Proposition 2.11 i: for measurability of a function (which is by def a statement concerning all Borel sets) it is sufficient to check these intervals only.
And it comes to our help here again: it turns out that in order to characterise the distribution of a random variable \(X\), rather than needing to know the whole collection Equation 2.11 it is sufficient to know what \(\mu_X((-\infty,x])\) is for all \(x \in \R\). And even more, this collection of probabilities we can conveniently also equally well characterise in the form of a function: \(F:\R \to [0,1]\) given by \[F(x):=\mu_X((-\infty,x])=\P(X \in (-\infty,x])=\P(X \leq x) \quad \text{for all } x \in \R.\] Suddenly recognise something?? Well indeed, this is nothing but your old loyal friend the cdf (cumulative distribution function)! :).
We could for instance write this all down as follows (it’s slightly subtle to formulate it carefully enough!) — it is a deep result, but we have done the hard technical work already in Lemma 1.60 and this write-up follows immediately from that lemma and Definition 2.20 above:
Proposition 2.22 (Uniquely characterising distributions using cdf’s) Consider the family of functions \(\mathbf{F}\) consisting of all functions \(F:\R \to [0,1]\) with the following properties: \(F\) is right-continuous and non-decreasing, \[\lim_{x \to -\infty} F(x)=0 \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x \to \infty} F(x)=1. \tag{2.12}\]
Then we have a one-to-one correspondence with distributions as defined in Definition 2.20, in the following sense.
Note that this means the following.
Some notes:
Example 2.23 (Working out a cdf) Of course you’ve seen and worked with plenty of examples of cdf’s in your earlier Probability courses so I don’t want to dwell on this, but maybe nice to construct one together — also to hopefully hammer home that link with your existing knowledge!
Let’s take again the probability space and random variable \(X\) from Example 2.19, and as visualised in Figure 2.6. If we wanted to work out the distribution of \(X\), then we could of course go down the route of working out all probabilities Equation 2.11. However if you look back at Example 2.21, where we followed this route as well, then you’ll agree that that would become an annoyingly lengthy list of different categories of Borel sets \(B\) to consider! So let’s go down the cdf route rather — in which all essential information about the distribution is preserved (cf. Proposition 2.22) but the working is much quicker (fundamentally, as alluded to above Proposition 2.22, because it focusses on a “sufficient” yet relatively small collection of Borel sets only).
Ok, so, according to Equation 2.13 we need to work out the function \(F_X: \R \to [0,1]\) given by \[F_X(x)=\P(X \in (-\infty,x])=\P(X \leq x) \quad \text{for all } x \in \R.\] Recall, and never forget!, that probabilities involving a random variable are always (shorthand for) probabilities of inverse images (cf. Definition 2.13). In this case: \[F_X(x)=\P \left( X^{-1}((-\infty,x]) \right) \quad \text{for all } x \in \R. \tag{2.14}\]
Now, in order to work out Equation 2.14, in general I’d recommend following the same strategy as in Example 2.12: on the real line that is the co-domain of \(X\), start with \(x\) all the way on the left (i.e. “near” \(-\infty\)) and gradually let it walk to the right over your real line, towards \(\infty\). As you do so, wonder for every value of \(x\) what the inverse image \(X^{-1}((-\infty,x]) \in \mathcal{F}\) as subset of \(\Omega\) is, and what its probabilty and hence \(F(x)\) is.
However in this case we can shortcut that process a little bit given the work we already did in Example 2.19 and visualised in Figure 2.6 (b): we already know that the possible values that \(X\) takes on the real line (i.e. its range) is \(\{1,3,5,6\}\), and the probabilities that \(X\) ends up in each of these values we already worked out in Equation 2.7–Equation 2.9. Using these we can argue as follows, where we also use the standard properties of probability measures from Definition 1.50 and Theorem 1.51:
In conclusion, the cdf \(F_X: \R \to [0,1]\) of \(X\) is given by \[F_X(x)=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } x<1 \\ 0.1 & \text{if } x \in [1,3) \\ 0.6 & \text{if } x \in [3,5) \\ 0.8 & \text{if } x \in [5,6) \\ 1 & \text{if } x \geq 6. \end{cases} \tag{2.15}\] See Figure 2.7 for a plot.
A final comment here: recall, from Definition 2.20, that the sole purpose in life of this cdf \(F_X\) is to (uniquely) represent the distribution of \(X\) i.e. its “behaviour” on the real line via the relationships laid out in Definition 2.20. It’s nice to observe how we can also visually see that here. Recall that we captured how \(X\) “behaves” on the real line earlier in Figure 2.6 (b). Now I’d like you to imagine to take the cdf plot from Figure 2.7 and place it on the real line in Figure 2.6 (b). What do we see then? Well indeed, \(F_X\) has its jumps/discontinuities exactly in the points that are also the possible values of \(X\), and furthermore the heights of these jumps/discontinuities are exactly equal to the probabilities that \(X\) ends up in each of these possible values! It’s not some massive revelation, you could easily make these observations from just the algebra as well, but nevertheless I think that it’s quite neat to observe this visual confirmation that the cdf of \(X\) indeed represents/“encodes” the distribution of \(X\)/how \(X\) “behaves” on the real line! :).
Lovely! In terms of step 1 and step 2 that we laid out above Definition 2.20, what remains to be done in this section is step 2: to look at some different families of random variables, and list the formulas for expectation etc. that you know already (without motivation/arguments, we’ll get back to all things expectations in Chapter 3!). We’ll go through them, at a bit of pace, in the subsections below.
You can now do Exercise 2.7–Exercise 2.9.
We call a random variable \(X: \Omega \to \R\) on a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) discrete if its range i.e. the set of values it takes on the real line i.e. (cf. Definition 2.3) \[\text{Range}(X):=\{X(\omega) \, | \, \omega \in \Omega \} \subseteq \R \tag{2.16}\] is countable (cf. Definition 1.16). Recall that this means that we can list its elements i.e. we can either write \[\text{Range}(X)=\{x_1,\ldots,x_n\} \quad \text{or} \quad \text{Range}(X)=\{x_1,x_2,\ldots\}. \tag{2.17}\] Little aside: recall that in the case of a finite range, specific conditions on \(\mathcal{F}\) to ensure measurability of \(X\) are discussed in Exercise 2.3. The results and arguments there can be extended in the obvious way to infinite (but still countable) range case.
For example, all three random variables \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\) in Example 2.21 are discrete because they all have range \(\{0,1\}\). Note also that discrete random variables can live on any probability space, no matter whether \(\Omega\) is countable or uncountable (i.e. “simple” or “advanced” experiment in terms of Definition 1.31) — indeed both cases appear in Example 2.21.
The cdf (cf. Proposition 2.22) of a discrete random variable is a piecewise constant function, which has jumps/discontinuities exactly at each element of \(\text{Range}(X)\) and the size of the jump/discontinuity at \(x=x_i\) equals \(\P(X=x_i)\). We saw this in action in Example 2.23.
Further, if \(h: \R \to \R\) is any Borel measurable function (cf. Definition 2.6) then \[\E[h(X)]=\sum_{i=1}^n h(x_i) \P(X=x_i) \quad \text{or} \quad \E[h(X)]=\sum_{i=1}^\infty h(x_i) \P(X=x_i) \tag{2.18}\] (depending on whether we are in the first or second case of Equation 2.17), and the choice \(h(x)=x\) yields \[\E[X]=\sum_{i=1}^n x_i \P(X=x_i) \quad \text{or} \quad \E[X]=\sum_{i=1}^\infty x_i \P(X=x_i), \tag{2.19}\] for the infinite summations provided that these are well defined/exist. Note also that we already used these expressions in Example 2.19.
There is one special class of discrete random variables that deserve an honourable mention in their own little subsection: indicator random variables (more commonly called indicator functions). On any probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), fix some event \(A \in \mathcal{F}\). Then the indicator random variable of \(A\) is the random variable \(\mathbf{1}_A: \Omega \to \R\) defined by \[\mathbf{1}_A(\omega)=\begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } \omega \in A \\ 0 & \text{if } \omega \not\in A. \end{cases} \tag{2.20}\] We can of course visualise it in our (well, mine at least! ;)) favourite style, cf. Figure 2.8.
Note that its range (cf. Equation 2.16) is \(\{0,1\}\) and hence it is a discrete random variable as discussed in Subsection 2.4.1 — observe that measurability follows from Exercise 2.3 i, using that \[\begin{align*} \mathbf{1}_A^{-1}(\{1\}) &= \big\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \big| \, \mathbf{1}_A(\omega)=1 \big\} \\ &= A \in \mathcal{F} \end{align*} \] (the second line using Equation 2.20 and the assumption that \(A \in \mathcal{F}\)) and \[\begin{align*} \mathbf{1}_A^{-1}(\{0\}) &= \big\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \big| \, \mathbf{1}_A(\omega)=0 \big\} \\ &= A^c \in \mathcal{F} \end{align*} \] (analogue, now also using Definition 1.33 ii).
Further applying Equation 2.19 yields the cute identity \[\begin{align*} \E[\mathbf{1}_A] &= 0 \cdot \P(\mathbf{1}_A=0)+1 \cdot \P(\mathbf{1}_A=1) \\ &= \P(\mathbf{1}_A=1) \\ &= \P(A), \end{align*} \tag{2.21}\] where the final equality uses that by definition, cf. Definition 2.13 (never forget!), \(\P(\mathbf{1}_A=1)\) is slight shorthand for the probability of the event \(\{\mathbf{1}_A=1\}=\mathbf{1}_A^{-1}(\{1\})\) which equals \(A\) as we saw above.
Note that “\(\mathbf{1}_A\)” has no special mathematical meaning or so, it’s just a label/name for a random variable, just like “\(X\)” or “\(Y\)” or whatever. Indeed, if you think about it for a moment, then any random variable with range \(\{0,1\}\) (no matter what label is used to name it) is in fact an indicator random variable i.e. of the form Equation 2.20 for the correct choice of \(A\). Indeed, \(X\), \(Y\) and \(Z\) in Example 2.21 are also all indicator random variables! For instance, in the setting of that example, \(X\) is the indicator random variable of the event \(A=\{\omega_2\}\). Have a look for yourself what \(A\) is for \(Y\) and \(Z\)!
The reason for specifically mentioning these little friends, and also for the fact that they have even been granted the eternal glory of getting their own dedicated label/name, is that they are incredibly handy and often used as the glue in more complicated constructions of random variables. For example, suppose that \(X\) and \(Y\) are random variables on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), and fix some event \(A \in \mathcal{F}\). Suppose that we have a sudden and urgent need to build a new random variable \(Z\), which we want to be equal to \(X\) on the event \(A\) and equal to \(Y\) on the event \(A^c\), that is to say \(Z : \Omega \to \R\) given by \[Z(\omega)=\begin{cases} X(\omega) & \text{if } \omega \in A \\ Y(\omega) & \text{if } \omega \not\in A \end{cases} \tag{2.22}\] (it happens, it really does, sometimes even at a very unfortunate moment, like when you’ve finally made your way to the front of a long line of people trying to buy food, and the guy behind the counter goes slightly impatiently “Yeah so what do you want to order?” and then you go “I’m sorry, hang on, you’ll all have to wait a little while, I first need to construct this random variable…”). The expression Equation 2.22 is fine in principle, but for many computations it is not very convenient. I mean, how would you compute the expectation or variance or some conditional expectation of that \(Z\)? For many such purposes, writing \(Z\) as a linear expression using indicator random variables is much nicer: \[Z=\mathbf{1}_A \cdot X + \mathbf{1}_{A^c} \cdot Y\] (note that this is a pointwise expression, as explained in Subsection 2.3.1) — you double check, by considering each \(\omega \in \Omega\), that this expression is indeed equivalent to Equation 2.22!
We call a random variable \(X: \Omega \to \R\) on a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) continuous if its cdf \(F_X\) can be written in the form \[F_X(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x f_X(y) \d y \quad \text{for all } x \in \R \tag{2.23}\] for some Borel measurable (cf. Definition 2.6), integrable function \(f_X: \R \to [0,\infty)\) that we call the probability density function (pdf) of \(X\). Note that this property is defined in terms of the distribution of \(X\) rather than the mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) itself (which was the case for discrete random variables), and so it would actually be more accurate to talk about “random variables with continuous distributions” — but it is what it is!
The “smoothest” category of such cdf’s are those which are continuously differentiable, then Equation 2.23 holds with \(f_X=F_X'\) and then \(f_X\) is continuous. An example is when \(X\) has a Normal distribution. However there are also “slightly less smooth” cases, for instance the Uniform distribution. There is a quite a rabbit hole to go down here to investigate exactly how “rough” \(F_X\) can be while still satisfying Equation 2.23, but that’s not our job here. Suffices to say that any cdf that can be written in the form Equation 2.23 is guaranteed to be absolutely continuous. See e.g. Wiki for an exact definition if you’re interested, for our purposes it is enough to note that absolutely continuity is a slightly stronger property than continuity but slightly weaker than differentiability.
If \(h: \R \to \R\) is a Borel measurable function (cf. Definition 2.6) then \[\E[h(X)]=\int_{-\infty}^\infty h(x) f_X(x) \d x \tag{2.24}\] and with the choice \(h(x)=x\) \[\E[X]=\int_{-\infty}^\infty x f_X(x) \d x,\] in both cases provided that the integral is well defined/exists.
Remark 2.24. Note that on a countable outcome space \(\Omega\) (i.e. a “simple” experiment in terms of Definition 1.31), any random variable is necessarily discrete (why??). So, taking into account Lemma 2.26 below, continuous random variables can only exist on uncountable outcome spaces (i.e. an “advanced” experiment in terms of Definition 1.31).
Example 2.25 (A pdf is not unique) Take the two functions \(f,g: \R \to [0,\infty)\) given by \[f(x)=\begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } x \in (0,1) \\ 0 & \text{if } x \leq 0 \text{ or } x \geq 1 \end{cases} , \quad g(x)=\begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } x \in [0,1] \\ 0 & \text{if } x <0 \text{ or } x>1 \end{cases} \] and define \(F,G: \R \to [0,1]\) as \[F(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x f(y) \d y, \ G(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x g(y) \d y \quad \text{for all } x \in \R.\]
What do you think that \(F\) and \(G\) then look like? I wouldn’t blame you at all if you’re a bit uncertain about integrating such discontinuous functions, fair enough if so, but if you look at the definition of Riemann integrals (upper and lower sums and things) or alternatively more intuitvely think about “the area under the curve”, then you’ll find that \(F\) and \(G\) are actually identical, namely \[F(x)=G(x)=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } x<0 \\ x & \text{if } x \in [0,1) \\ 1 & \text{if } x \geq 1. \end{cases} \]
And even more, now you see this expression it might remind you of something — indeed, it is the cdf of a Uniform distribution on \([0,1]\) (see e.g. Wiki)! But that also means that if we look at the expression linking cdf and pdf for a random variable with that Uniform distribution, Equation 2.23, that both \(f\) and \(g\) above could equally well be used as our choice for the pdf \(f_X\)… So what is going on here??
At the core of it, taking the integral of a function is a somewhat insensitive operation: it can’t detect any small enough differences between two functions and it will happily give the same result for each of them. That also means that Equation 2.23 fundamentally does not uniquely specify a pdf: if \(f_X\) is a valid pdf i.e. makes Equation 2.23 work for some given cdf \(F_X\), then any function obtained by changing \(f_X\) in a few points only for instance also makes Equation 2.23 work and is hence an equally valid choice to make for the pdf! This is not an actual problem: the (almost) only way in which we use pdf’s is in some integral or the other, so that all possible valid pdf choices generate the same result anyway.
Nevertheless it’s good to be aware of this. And strictly speaking, talking about “the pdf” is hence a misnomer really, we should actually rather always be talking about “a pdf”!
You can now do Exercise 2.10.
Here’s a cute little
Lemma 2.26 (Discrete vs continuous vs “other” random variables) On any probability space, there does not exist a random variable which is both discrete and continuous. Further, there do exist random variables that are neither discrete nor continuous.
The arguments are immediate: from Subsection 2.4.1 and Subsection 2.4.3, if you take any random variable on some probability space, then its cdf cannot be both absolutely continuous and piecewise constant, because absolutely continuous implies continuous and a piecewise constant function changes value only by means of a jump/discontinuity. The only function that is both continuous and piecewise constant is a constant function. But a cdf cannot be constant, because it has different limit values at \(\pm \infty\) (cf. Equation 2.12).
Further, recall the family of functions, \(\mathbf{F}\), that we defined in Proposition 2.22. It has plenty of members that are neither piecewise constant nor (absolutely) continuous. Take for instance \[F(x)=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } x<0 \\ 1-e^{-x}/4 & \text{if } x \geq 0. \end{cases} \] And recall from Proposition 2.22 that since \(F \in \mathbf{F}\), there exists a random variable on some probability space that has \(F\) as its cdf, which is then clearly neither a discrete nor a continuous random variable!
Yeah well whatever Kees, what’s your point?? Well, as we already mentioned earlier on in this section, a whole lot of Probability Theory, including what we’ll be doing in Part II of our course, essentially boils down to the study of distributional properties of (intricate) constructions involving random variables. These distributional properties are essentially all in some way flowing from being able to compute expectations of these random variables. So that’s crucially important for us! And if we now look at where we stand: we can only compute expectations for discrete and continuous random variables, for which we somehow have very differently looking expressions. Not to mention these “other” random variables Lemma 2.26 mentions, we have no idea whatsoever how to deal with these! You’d agree that this is a rather poor state of affairs no? The good news is that we’ll be able to sort all of this out in Chapter 3!
So far in this chapter we have mainly focussed on the case of only a single random variable on a probability space — though we have seen some examples of multiple random variables as well, for instance \(X\) and \(Y\) in Example 2.21. The beauty and immense power of Probability Theory mainly flourishes in the context of studying structures involving multiple/many random variables on some probability space (incl. stochastic processes and martingales that we will look at in Part II of this course!). Of course we’ll discover that gradually as we go forward, but it is at this point maybe already good to look at the fundamental aspects we saw in this chapter in the case of multiple random variables, so that later on we can build on them: inverse images and measurability. We’ll frame things in the context of two random variables, but they extend in the obvious way to \(n\) random variables.
So take some universe/set \(\Omega\) and consider two mappings \(X,Y : \Omega \to \R\). Cf. Figure 2.9 (a) & Figure 2.9 (b). Note that in terms of inverse images (cf. Definition 2.3) we now can look at these for both \(X\), i.e. \(\{X \in B\}=X^{-1}(B)\) for Borel sets \(B\), as well as \(Y\) i.e. \(\{Y \in B\}=Y^{-1}(B)\) for Borel sets \(B\). So in order to work with both \(X\) and \(Y\) as random variables, i.e. being to compute probabilities for both these guys taking certain values, as in Equation 2.4, we need to choose a \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\) (cf. Definition 1.33) that contains both these collections of inverse images i.e. contains the collection \[\mathcal{C}:=\{ X^{-1}(B) \, | \, B \in \mathcal{B}(\R) \} \cup \{ Y^{-1}(B) \, | \, B \in \mathcal{B}(\R) \} \subseteq \Omega. \tag{2.25}\]
But actually you’d want a bit more than just those guys, you’d also want to be able to talk about probabilities that involve both \(X\) and \(Y\). For instance, you’d also want that the following subsets of \(\Omega\) are events i.e. elements of your \(\sigma\)-algebra so that their probabilities are well defined (for two random variables we like to use the same notational conveniences/shorthands as we introduced in Definition 2.13!):
In general terms (don’t worry too much about the details, mainly to have this mentioned), you’d want that for any \(D \in \mathcal{B}(\R^2)\) (recall from Remark 1.44), the subset \[\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, (X(\omega),Y(\omega)) \in D \} \subseteq \Omega \tag{2.28}\] is an event i.e. element of your \(\sigma\)-algebra. Indeed for any Borel set \(B \subseteq \R\), if you take \(D=B \times \R \in \mathcal{B}(\R^2)\) resp. \(D=\R \times B \in \mathcal{B}(\R^2)\) (Cartesian products, recall from Definition 1.12) then Equation 2.28 boils down to \(X^{-1}(B)\) resp. \(Y^{-1}(B)\). For the choice \(D=B_1 \times B_2\) you find Equation 2.26 back. And if you take for \(D\) the part of \(\R^2\) above the diagonal, i.e. \[D=\{ (x,y) \, | \, y>x \} \in \mathcal{B}(\R^2)\] then Equation 2.28 boils down to Equation 2.27. As a little aside: note that Equation 2.28 is still an inverse image, but now of the random variables considered as a pair \((X,Y): \Omega \to \R^2\), which maps \(\omega \in \Omega\) to \((X(\omega),Y(\omega)) \in \R^2\)! Cf. Figure 2.9 (d).
It turns out that all we need to do to create a suitable \(\sigma\)-algebra is to look at the \(\sigma\)-algebra generated by the collection Equation 2.25 (cf. Definition 1.36). Contrary to the case of a single mapping, where the collection of inverse images of Borel sets is immediately also a \(\sigma\)-algebra (cf. Proposition 2.9), the collection Equation 2.25 is not a \(\sigma\)-algebra and hence the \(\sigma\)-algebra generated by Equation 2.25 contains extra subsets of \(\Omega\) as “padding”. And that is conveniently exactly the kind of “padding” you’d hope for, namely all subsets of the form Equation 2.28!
Definition 2.27 (The sigma-algebra generated by two (or more) functions/mappings) Let \(\Omega\) be a set/universe and \(X,Y: \Omega \to \R\) two mappings. Then the \(\sigma\)-algebra generated by \(X\) and \(Y\), denoted by \(\sigma(X,Y)\), is the \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\) generated by (cf. Definition 1.36) the collection containing all inverse images of Borel sets of both \(X\) and \(Y\) (i.e. Equation 2.25).
Compare and contrast with Proposition 2.9! We can extend this concept in the obvious way to any number \(n=3,4,\ldots\) of random variables.
Proposition 2.28 (Some properties of the sigma-algebra generated by two (or more) functions/mappings) Let again \(\Omega\) be a set/universe and \(X,Y: \Omega \to \R\) two mappings. Let \(\sigma(X,Y)\) be the \(\sigma\)-algebra on \(\Omega\) generated by \(X,Y\) as defined in Definition 2.27. Then we have the following.
Some notes:
Example 2.29 (An example with three random variables) Consider the experiment of rolling three fair dice (a special case of Example 2.2). Representing each possible outcome as a triple of numbers from \(1\) to \(6\) i.e. \[ \Omega= \left\{ \left. \omega=\left( \omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)},\omega^{(3)} \right) \, \right| \, \omega^{(i)} \in \{1,\ldots,6\} \right\} \] then \(\Omega\) is finite and hence we’re dealing with a “simple” experiment (cf. Definition 1.31), and as we know (from Example 1.54 e.g.), for setting up the rest of the probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50) we can make straightforward choices: for the \(\sigma\)-algebra the powerset i.e. \(\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{P}(\Omega)\), and the probability measure \(\P: \mathcal{F} \to [0,1]\) is fully specified by the probabilities it gives to the individual outcomes i.e. \[\P(\{\omega\})=\frac{1}{6^3} \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega \tag{2.29}\] (making all possible outcomes equally likely, properly reflecting the “reality” of fair dice).
Further let \(X\) give the smallest number of the first two dice, let \(Y\) give the largest number of the first two dice, and let \(Z\) give the average of the final two dice. That is, \(X,Y,Z: \Omega \to \R\) are defined as \[\begin{align*} X(\omega) &= \min\left\{ \omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)} \right\}, \\ Y(\omega) &= \max \left\{ \omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)} \right\}, \\ Z(\omega) &= \frac{\omega^{(2)}+\omega^{(3)}}{2}. \end{align*} \] Note that the choice for the powerset as our \(\sigma\)-algebra guarantees that all three are random variables, cf. Exercise 2.4. Further it is worth observing that the ranges/set of possible values are \(\{1,\ldots,6\}\), \(\{1,\ldots,6\}\) and \(\{1,1.5,2,2.5,\ldots,6\}\) respectively, so each of the three has a finite range and is therefore a discrete random variables (cf. Subsection 2.4.1). Of course, more generally we also know from Remark 2.24 that any random variable on this probability space is necessarily discrete!
So, just to fully touch base and go through the basics of running this experiment (cf. Definition 2.1): if you roll the three dice and observe for instance the outcome \(\omega=(3,4,6)\), then you observe that the three random variables take the following values on their respective real lines: \[\begin{align*} X \big( (3,4,6) \big) &= \min\{3,4\}=3, \\ Y \big( (3,4,6) \big) &= \max\{3,4\}=4, \\ Z \big( (3,4,6) \big) &= \frac{4+6}{2}=5. \end{align*} \] Or, in the alternative viewpoint of Figure 2.9 (d): the mapping \((X,Y,Z): \Omega \to \R^3\), \(\omega \mapsto (X(\omega),Y(\omega),Z(\omega))\) takes the value \((3,4,5) \in \R^3\).
inverse images and probs: let’s first look at some inverse images and probs, to reinforce the shorthand notation from Definition 2.13 and to stress one more time that \(\P\) by def only takes events i.e. subsets of \(\Omega\) that are elements of \(\mathcal{F}\) (so any, in this case) as input:
\(\sigma\)-algebras: as discussed above, for the “main” \(\sigma\)-algebra to make up our probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) we have chosen the powerset i.e. \(\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{P}(\Omega)\). But recall that even on a finite \(\Omega\) there exist many other \(\sigma\)-algebras! Of course, by very def of the powerset any other \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{G}\) is always a sub-\(\sigma\)-algebra of \(\mathcal{F}\) i.e. \(\mathcal{G} \subseteq \mathcal{F}\).
Some examples are the \(\sigma\)-algebras generated by the three random variables: \(\sigma(X)\), \(\sigma(Y)\) and \(\sigma(Z)\) (cf. Definition 2.13 & Proposition 2.9). Further Definition 2.27 gives us four more \(\sigma\)-algebras: \(\sigma(X,Y)\), \(\sigma(X,Z)\), \(\sigma(Y,Z)\) and even \(\sigma(X,Y,Z)\).
Now, here is maybe a slightly reassuring message: going forward, we will normally not be digging into the nitty-gritty of the \(\sigma\)-algebras we encounter. They are mostly tools for us to enable us to do some lovely advanced Probability Theory! Key is to be able to work with them on a more general/intuitve level.
For instance, we can observe that we have the inclusions: \[\sigma(X) \subseteq \sigma(X,Y) \subseteq \sigma(X,Y,Z).\] To justify the first inclusion, from Proposition 2.9 we know that \(\sigma(X)\) is the smallest \(\sigma\)-algebra that makes \(X\) measurable i.e. that it is a sub-\(\sigma\)-algebra of any other \(\sigma\)-algebra that makes \(X\) measurable. Since \(X\) is \(\sigma(X,Y)\)-measurable (cf. Proposition 2.28 i), it follows that \(\sigma(X) \subseteq \sigma(X,Y)\). The other inclusion can similarly be justified by (again) making use of Proposition 2.28 i (convince yourself!). So as a general rule: if we look at \(\sigma\)-algebras generated by random variables i.e. of the form \(\sigma(\ldots)\), then the more random variables we include on these “\(\ldots\)” the larger (in a weak sense) the resulting \(\sigma\)-algebra is.
Further, the criterion from Proposition 2.28 ii is a great “common sense” rule. For instance, let’s look at \(\sigma(X,Y)\). If the experiment is done with outcome \(\omega \in \Omega\) and we know \(X(\omega)\) and \(Y(\omega)\) i.e. the minimum and the maximum of the first two dice, then you’ll agree (after maybe a little bit of thinking) that this means that we in fact know the result of the first and second die. Then Proposition 2.28 ii tells us that any subset/event (the same thing here, since \(\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{P}(\Omega)\)!) \(A \subseteq \Omega\) is an element of \(\sigma(X,Y)\) if and only if we can decide whether or not \(A\) happens based on knowing the result of the first and second die. So for instance the event that both the first and second die yield an even number \[\left\{ \left. \omega=\left( \omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)},\omega^{(3)} \right) \in \Omega \, \right| \, \omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)} \in \{2,4,6\} \right\}\] is an element of \(\sigma(X,Y)\), while the event that all three dice yield an even number i.e. \[\left\{ \left. \omega=\left( \omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)},\omega^{(3)} \right) \in \Omega \, \right| \, \omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)},\omega^{(3)} \in \{2,4,6\} \right\}\] is not an element of \(\sigma(X,Y)\), because if we know that the first and second die are even both possibilities are still open: \(A\) may or may not happen depending on whether that unknown third die is even and so we can’t decide whether or not \(A\) happens!
Proposition 2.28 iii can be used with the same higher level thinking. It impies for instance that \(Z\) (the one in this example) is not \(\sigma(X,Y)\)-measurable, because (the same arguments as in the previious paragraph): knowing \(X(\omega)\) and \(Y(\omega)\) and hence the result of the first and second die does not tell us anything about the third die, while the result of the third die is necessary to determine \(Z(\omega)\).
As a final comment, to counterbalance our regular focus on situations with sub-\(\sigma\)-algebras a bit: if you take any two \(\sigma\)-algebras, say \(\mathcal{G}_1\) and \(\mathcal{G}_2\), then it is not always true that one of \(\mathcal{G}_1 \subseteq \mathcal{G}_2\) or \(\mathcal{G}_2 \subseteq \mathcal{G}_1\) holds! Consider for instance \(\sigma(X,Y)\) and \(\sigma(X,Z)\). Then (all three bullet points can be justified using Proposition 2.28 ii, check for yourself! — and I’m writing down the events only in shorthand notation which you can extend yourself if you find that helpful):
So indeed, it’s not as if \(\sigma(X,Y)\) and \(\sigma(X,Z)\) are completely disjoint because they do share some elements, but it is not the case that either of the two is contained in the other.
A very quick word about independence in this section. Working on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50), recall the following two types you have seen before:
Events: two events \(A,B \in \mathcal{F}\) are called independent if it holds that \[\P(A \cap B)=\P(A) \P(B) \tag{2.30}\] (don’t confuse this with disjoint i.e. \(A \cap B=\emptyset\)!).
Random variables: two random variables \(X,Y\) (cf. Definition 2.13) are called independent if any combination of two inverse images are independent events, i.e. if for any Borel sets \(B_1, B_2 \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\) we have that \[\P(X \in B_1 \text{ and } Y \in B_2)=\P(X \in B_1) \P(Y \in B_2) \tag{2.31}\] (recall that we discussed events like \(\{ X \in B_1 \text{ and } Y \in B_2 \}\) in the above Section 2.5!). You’ll also remember that this condition is in fact equivalent to the seemingly weaker requirement that \[\P(X \leq x \text{ and } Y \leq y)=\P(X \leq x) \P(Y \leq y) \quad \text{for all } x,y \in \R \tag{2.32}\] (oi — it’s that special collection of Borel sets from Lemma 1.59 yet again!). And furthermore, in case \(X\) and \(Y\) are both discrete random variables (cf. Subsection 2.4.1) with range \(R_X \subseteq \R\) and \(R_Y \subseteq \R\) resp., then independence is equivalent to the condition \[\P(X=n \text{ and } Y=m)=\P(X=n) \P(Y=m) \quad \text{for all } n \in R_X, m \in R_Y. \tag{2.33}\]
We can add a third type as well:
Definition 2.30 (Independent sigma-algebras) On some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50), let \(\mathcal{G}_1, \mathcal{G}_2\) be sub-\(\sigma\)-algebras of \(\mathcal{F}\) (i.e. \(\mathcal{G}_i \subseteq \mathcal{F}\)). Then we say that \(\mathcal{G}_1\) and \(\mathcal{G}_2\) are independent if any two events \(A \in \mathcal{G}_1\) and \(B \in \mathcal{G}_2\) are independent.
It’s worth noting how this naturally ties in with independence of random variables, as follows: given \(X,Y\), recall the \(\sigma\)-algebras they generate on \(\Omega\) from Definition 2.13: \(\sigma(X)\) and \(\sigma(Y)\). Since these guys consist entirely of inverse images of Borel sets, cf. Proposition 2.9, it readily follows that independence of \(\sigma(X)\) and \(\sigma(Y)\) as per Definition 2.30 is exactly equivalent to independence of \(X\) and \(Y\) i.e. Equation 2.31! :).
Proposition 2.31 (Independence of random variables vs the sigma-algebras they generate) Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be random variables (cf. Definition 2.13) on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50). Then \(X\) and \(Y\) are independent (cf. Equation 2.31–Equation 2.33) if and only if \(\sigma(X)\) and \(\sigma(Y)\) (cf. Proposition 2.9) are independent \(\sigma\)-algebras (cf. Definition 2.30).
You can now do Exercise 2.11.
As the final topic in this chapter we briefly look at the so-called modes of convergence (at least, the most commonly used ones). The setting is a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50) on which a whole sequence \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) of random variables is defined.
Recall that we talked about having multiple random variables on a probability space in Section 2.5. Of course in that section we limited ourselves to finitely many random variables only, but the essentials are the still the same. For instance the visual from Figure 2.9 (b): if we run the experiment and observe an outcome \(\omega \in \Omega\), then this guy gets plugged into each of the random variables \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) so that each of them takes a value on their own real line: \(X_1(\omega) \in \R\), \(X_2(\omega) \in \R\), etc.
Now, whenever we see an infinite sequence of objects of some type, we as poor mathematicians can’t help but immediately ponder the question whether or not that sequence converges to some limit value, and what that exactly means. Recall that for a sequence of real numbers \(a_1, a_2, \ldots\), we say that it converges to the real number \(a\) if it holds that (if you’d like a refresher, see e.g. Wiki) \[\lim_{n \to \infty} \lvert a_n-a \rvert=0. \tag{2.34}\] That is, if for any \(\eps>0\), there exists an \(N=1,2,\ldots\) so that for all \(n \geq N\) we have that \(\lvert a_n-a \rvert<\eps\). I.e. no matter how small of a distance \(\eps\) we choose, if only we walk far enough into the sequence then all elements still in front of us will be within that distance \(\eps\) of the limit value \(a\).
Real numbers are simple enough that there is only one sensible way to make sense of convergence, in particular because there is only one sensible approach to measuring the distance between two real numbers, namely via the absolute value. Another aspect of that simplicity is that if a sequence has a limit, it is a unique limit. That’s in general not a given though!
Remark 2.32. Note that Equation 2.34 is the definition of convergence to a finite limit \(a\). For the sake of avoiding any ambiguity, we tend to use the following classification for a sequence of real numbers \(a_1, a_2, \ldots\):
If Equation 2.34 holds for some \(a \in \R\), then we are in the case where the sequence converges to a finite limit. Equivalently \[\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n=a \in \R.\]
If \[\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n=-\infty \quad \text{or} \quad \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n=\infty\] then we (not everybody agrees!) still say that the sequence converges, to (indeed!) \(-\infty\) or \(\infty\).
Recall that by def, \(\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n=\infty\) holds if for any \(K>0\) (think: no matter how large) there exists an \(N=1,2,\ldots\) so that for all \(n \geq N\) we have that \(a_n>K\). Analogue for the \(-\infty\) case.
In all other cases, i.e. if \(\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n\) does not exist, we say that the sequence does not converge/diverges.
Trying to translate that same idea from real numbers to random variables, it would seem to make sense to say that our sequence \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) converges to another random variable \(X\) on \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) if it holds that the absolute difference \(Y_n := \lvert X_n-X \rvert\) becomes arbitrarily small if only we increase \(n\) enough i.e. if the sequence \(Y_1, Y_2, \ldots\) converges to \(0\).
Alrighty then. But this is still not that much clearer is it? I mean, our definition of \(Y_n\) is a poinwise one (cf. Subsection 2.3.1) and should be read as: \(Y_n: \Omega \to \R\) given by \[Y_n(\omega)=\lvert X_n(\omega)-X(\omega) \rvert \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega, \tag{2.35}\] which is measurable and hence a random variable, by the general arguments from Example 2.16. So we have effectively only translated our general problem into a slightly more specific one: how should we then understand/define a sequence of random variables, like \(Y_1, Y_2, \ldots\), converging to \(0\)??
The answer is that, well, there isn’t a single clearly most sensible answer! Rather, because random variables are much more complicated objects than numbers, there are several possible answers: the possible modes of convergence as we call them. Each of them comes with their own philosophy and rationale. Some lean more into the fact that random variables are also “just” mappings/functions, while others rather focus more on the probability side of things/the distributions of the random variables involved. None of them is generally “better” than the others, it’s rather about which “mode” best fits the situation at hand. Of course that’s largely a judgement call for which you as Probabilist get more feel the more you work with them!
We’ll discuss the most prominent modes of convergence below. One thing you’ll note as you go through them: ultimately they all, in a variety of different ways though, bring the problem back to convergence of real numbers!
What is the simplest way to give meaning to “the sequence \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) of random variables converges to the random variable \(X\)”? Well, if we purely look at the fact that they are all functions from \(\Omega\) to \(\R\), then if we plug in any \(\omega \in \Omega\) we get a sequence of real numbers: \(X_1(\omega), X_2(\omega), \ldots\) as well as a real number \(X(\omega)\). Then we could simply apply the real number criterion for convergence! If we then also simply demand that this works out for any \(\omega \in \Omega\) we get our first “mode of convergence”:
Definition 2.33 (Convergence of random variables: pointwise) On some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50), if \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) is a sequence of random variables and \(X\) is another random variable, then we say that \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) converges to \(X\) pointwise if \[\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=X(\omega) \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega \tag{2.36}\] Note that this statement concerns “just” limits of real numbers! See also Remark 2.32.
Using the \(Y_n\)’s from Equation 2.35, note that we can equivalently formulate Equation 2.36 as \[\lim_{n \to \infty} Y_n(\omega)=0 \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega \tag{2.37}\] (also, of course, “just” limits of real numbers!).
We discussed in Subsection 2.3.1 already that in Probability Theory, doing algebra with random variables in “pointwise mode” is regularly inconvenient and basically “too strong”, and that typically we rather need to work in “almost sure mode” in which we allow our identities to fail on a “small enough” event i.e. one that is a null event/has probability \(0\) (cf. Definition 1.55).
Very much the same is true when it comes to convergence: the pointwise convergence in Definition 2.33 is typically not the best tool to use, rather it proves to be a lot more productive to give ourselves a little bit of wiggle room by allowing the “per \(\omega\)” convergence to fail on a null event. Or, equivalently, to insist that the “per \(\omega\)” convergence holds on an almost sure event only:
Definition 2.34 (Convergence of random variables: almost surely) On some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50), if \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) is a sequence of random variables and \(X\) is another random variable, then we say that \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) converges to \(X\) almost surely if there exists an almost sure event \(\Omega_0\) (i.e. \(\P(\Omega_0)=1\), cf. Definition 1.55) so that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=X(\omega) \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega_0. \tag{2.38}\] We also write this as “\(X_n \stackrel{\text{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\)”.
Some notes:
Using the \(Y_n\)’s from Equation 2.35, note that we can equivalently formulate Equation 2.38 as \[\lim_{n \to \infty} Y_n(\omega)=0 \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega_0. \tag{2.39}\]
Further, and this feels maybe a bit alien: as is readily clear from Definition 2.34 if you think about it: an almost sure limit is never unique! Indeed, suppose that we have \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) and \(X\) for which Equation 2.38 holds. Indeed let \(Y\) be any random variable on the same probability space that is equal to \(X\) on \(\Omega_0\) (i.e satisfies \(Y(\omega)=X(\omega)\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega_0\)). So in particular, \(Y(\omega)\) can be whatever for \(\omega \in \Omega_0^c\). Then Equation 2.38 holds with \(Y\) replaced by \(X\) as well, i.e. \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) also converges to \(Y\) almost surely!
In general this is not something to be very happy about — non-unique limit values make life hard. But here’s the reassuring news. If we are working in “almost sure mode” as discussed in Subsection 2.3.1 then we don’t care about differences on null events, we (can) simply ignore these. So with the “almost sure mode” switched on, the two limit values \(X\) and \(Y\) in the previous paragraph are simply considered identical and we can go back to being our happy selves! Exercise Exercise 2.14 shows this in general.
Example 2.35 (An example of almost sure convergence) Consider again the “advanced” experiment from Example 1.54, in which we roll infinitely many fair dice resulting in an uncountable outcome space \(\Omega\) consisting of all possible infinite sequences of the form \[\omega=(\omega^{(1)},\omega^{(2)},\ldots) \quad \text{where } \omega^{(i)} \in \{1,\ldots,6\}\] (not using my fancy dice symbols this time! ;)).
Recall that in Example 1.54 we did the challenging work of constructing a suitable \(\sigma\)-algebra \(\mathcal{F}\) and probability measure \(\P\) (reflecting the correct “reality”) on this space, to create a probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) for this experiment. All I need you to remember for the discussion here is that \(\mathcal{F}\) contains all “sensible” subsets of \(\Omega\) as elements (and hence events), and that \(\P\) has that particular property that each possible outcome has probability \(0\) i.e. \[\P(\{\omega\})=0 \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega. \tag{2.40}\] Further we’re not going to bother to prove that the mappings we’ll be using below are indeed \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable and hence random variables (cf. Definition 2.13).
Ok, in this context we can discuss a nice example of (non-trivial) almost sure convergence. For this, we want to look at the sequence of random variables \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) where \(X_n\) gives the average of the first \(n\)-th dice i.e. \[X_n(\omega)=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n \omega^{(i)} \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega.\] For the sake of our argument, it is clearer to introduce another sequence of random variables, \(Y_1, Y_2, \ldots\) where \(Y_n\) gives the result of the \(n\)-th die i.e. \[Y_n(\omega)=\omega^{(n)} \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega.\] Such a mapping, that takes as input a sequence and gives as output a specific element of the sequence, is called a projection mapping. For certain technical reasons they are commonly used in such constructions (he said, gesturing vaguely). Anyway, the point for us is that obviously we can also write the random variables \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) in the form \[X_n(\omega)=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n Y_i(\omega) \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega\] or, using the “pointwise” notation from Subsection 2.3.1, simply as \[X_n=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n Y_i. \tag{2.41}\]
Alrighty. Now my question to you is: do you remember a beautiful result from your earlier Probability courses that tells you something about the limit of \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) given by Equation 2.41, also taking into account that the \(Y_i\)’s are clearly independent random variables? Well indeed, the always amazing Strong Law of Large Numbers tells us that \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) converges almost surely (i.e. as in Definition 2.34) to the number \(\E[Y_1]=3.5\)! Or, equivalently, to the constant random variable \(X=3.5\) (recall that we saw such guys earlier in Example 2.14)!
And this is truly an almost sure “only” limit, not a pointwise limit as in Definition 2.33 that then trivially also happens to be an almost sure limit. Take for example the outcome in which every die yields \(6\) i.e. \(\omega=(6,6,6,\ldots)\). Then \[Y_i(\omega)=6 \quad \text{for all } i=1,2,\ldots\] and hence \[X_n(\omega)=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n Y_i(\omega)=\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n 6=6 \quad \text{for all } n=1,2,\ldots.\] So clearly for this \(\omega\), the sequence \(X_1(\omega), X_2(\omega), \ldots\) trivially converges to \(6\) as \(n \to \infty\), and not to \(X(\omega)=3.5\)!
On the one hand, we do know from Equation 2.40 that this outcome has probability \(0\). But, of course, having seen the above I’m sure you’ll be able to think of quite a few more examples of outcomes \(\omega\) where the convergence of \(X_1(\omega), X_2(\omega), \ldots\) to \(X(\omega)=3.5\) fails. Nevertheless, the Strong Law of Large Numbers guarantees that there is almost sure convergence to \(X\), and hence that the event containing all such \(\omega\)’s that stubbornly refuse to cooperate with our lovely limit i.e. \[\left\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \left| \, \lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega) \not= 3.5=X(\omega) \right. \right\}\]
has probability \(0\) (cf. the second bullet point under “Notes” in Definition 2.34)!
I think that this example also nicely illustrates the earlier claim that the pointwise convergence from Definition 2.33 is often not the best tool to use for us — if we didn’t have almost sure convergence at our disposal here then we wouldn’t be able to prove any convergence at all, because with the pointwise convergence glasses on there is no convergence to be found here!
Example 2.36 (Another example of almost sure convergence) One more then! This time we don’t start from the perspective of an experiment to get to a suitable probability space, we just formulate a probability space and random variables in their own right. Recall the probability space \(([0,1],\mathcal{B}([0,1]),\P)\), where \(\P\) is the Lebesgue measure, from Example 1.58 & Example 2.15 for instance.
For any \(n=1,2,\ldots\), consider the mapping \(X_n: [0,1] \to \R\) given by \[X_n(\omega)=\begin{cases} (-1)^n & \text{if } \omega=0 \\ 1/n & \text{if } \omega \in (0,1], \end{cases} \] and note that since this guy is continuous except for in \(\omega=0\), Proposition 2.11 ii guarantees that it is (Borel) measurable and hence a random variable (cf. Definition 2.13).
As also stressed in the final paragraph of Example 2.15, any random variable on this probability space is (also) a “normal” function mapping real numbers to real numbers, and so we can just plot the bastard! See Figure 2.10.
Now, let’s investigate whether the \(X_n\)’s converge, either pointwise or almost surely, to some limit \(X\). Let’s just look at the different \(\omega \in [0,1]\) and sniff at them a little bit. If we fix any \(\omega \in (0,1]\), then \(X_n(\omega)=1/n\) and as we know well this sequence (in \(n\), of real numbers) has indeed a limit, namely \(0\). If we fix \(\omega=0\), then \(X_n(\omega)=X_n(0)=(-1)^n\) which gives a sequence (in \(n\), of real numbers) which for all eternity flops back and forth between \(-1\) and \(1\) and so doesn’t have a limit.
This bit of sniffing brings us to the following conclusion. If we define the constant random variable \(X=0\) (recall from Example 2.14), then we have for every \(\omega \in (0,1]\) that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=0=X(\omega) \tag{2.42}\] while for \(\omega=0\) we have that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(0) \not= 0=X(0).\] So we do not have pointwise convergence (as defined in Definition 2.33) but we do have that \(X_n \stackrel{\text{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\) (cf. Definition 2.34), since Equation 2.38 holds with \(\Omega_0=(0,1]\) which is indeed an almost sure event since \(\P((0,1])=1-0=1\) (cf. Proposition 1.56 i).
Note that also here we observe the non-uniqueness of the almost sure limit: we chose to set \(X(0)=0\) just because that’s appealing as it makes \(X\) constant on the whole of \([0,1]\), but the above would have worked equally well no matter what value we had given \(X(0)\).
In fact, just to stretch your poor brain a little bit, any random variable \(X\) on this space with the property that \(X=0\) on some almost sure event \(A\) (or, equivalently, for which \(X=0\) only fails to hold on some null event) is an equally valid almost sure limit value because it makes the above still work: Equation 2.42 then holds for any \(\omega \in \Omega_0:=(0,1] \cap A\) which is an almost sure event since both \((0,1]\) and \(A\) are plus Exercise 1.12.
This includes for instance, to push out the boat a little bit, a funny choice like the indicator random variable (cf. Subsection 2.4.2) of the rational numbers contained in the interval \([0,1]\) i.e. \(X=\mathbf{1}_{\Q \cap [0,1]}\) — indeed this guy is unequal to \(0\) only on the event \(\Q \cap [0,1]\) and since this is a countable set (recall from Definition 1.16 that \(\Q\) is countable and hence so is any subset like \(\Q \cap [0,1]\), cf. Example 1.17 i) we have that \(\P(\Q \cap [0,1])=0\) (cf. Proposition 1.56 iii).
The final one we’ll explicitly mention here is one that looks at the matter a bit differently than considering random variables purely as mappings/functions from \(\Omega\) to \(\R\) and taking a “per \(\omega\)” perspective like the previous two did.
So let’s take a fresh look at the question how to give meaning to random variables \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) getting ever closer to some limit random variable \(X\) i.e. for the non-negative random variables \(Y_1, Y_2, \ldots\) given by \(Y_n=\lvert X_n-X \rvert\) (cf. Equation 2.35) getting ever closer to the constant \(0\). One possible approach is to think about the different possible values that the random variable \(Y_n\) can take, and to require that these values get ever more concentrated very close to/in \(0\) as \(n\) grows.
To translate this into a concrete (and reasonably easy to check) criterion we could look at their expectation: intuitively at least it seems pretty clear that requiring \(\E[Y_n]\) to go to \(0\) as \(n \to \infty\) should do the trick: if a non-negative random variable has an expectation very close \(0\) than at least the vast majority of the values it takes should be pretty close to \(0\) no?
We can back up this intuition via Markov’s inequality (cf. Theorem 3.24 v) \[\P(Y_n \geq a) \leq \frac{\E[Y_n]}{a} \quad \text{for all } a>0.\] For example, if we plug in \(a=a_n:=100\E[Y_n]\) then it follows that the probability that \(Y_n\) takes a value at least as large as \(a_n\) is at most \(0.01\). If we let \(n\) grow and \(\E[Y_n]\) does indeed go to \(0\), then so does \(a_n\), and the probability that \(Y_n\) takes a value outside the ever shrinking interval \([0,a_n)\) remains constant at (only) \(0.01\).
So it makes a lot of sense to use the number \[\E[Y_n]=\E[\lvert X_n-X \rvert] \in [0,\infty] \tag{2.43}\] as a “measure of distance” between \(X_n\) and \(X\): a small value implies that with large probability (think: for many \(\omega \in \Omega\)), the values that \(X_n\) and \(X\) take are very close together i.e. \(Y_n\) takes a value very close to \(0\). And we will see in Chapter 3 (where we will in particular also discuss how to define expectation for any random variable, so that the contents of this subsection can also apply to all random variables rather than only discrete or continuous ones with our current knowledge, cf. Subsection 2.4.4) that this “measure of distance” equals \(0\) if and only if \(X_n\) and \(X\) take exactly the same value almost surely (cf. Subsection 2.3.1) i.e. if \(\P(X_n=X)=1\). That is, if and only if in “almost sure mode” (cf. Subsection 2.3.1) \(X_n\) and \(X\) are considered the same random variables. Exactly how you’d like a good “measure of distance” to behave of course!
Fine, ok! But then, is there anything special about the absolute value function we used in Equation 2.43? Clearly we do need to feed \(X_n-X\) through some function, since otherwise we would run into a problem of undesirable cancellation: for instance if on some event \(A\) with \(\P(A)=1/2\) we had \(X_n=1\) and \(X=0\) while on \(A^c\) we had \(X_n=0\) and \(X=1\) (so \(X_n\) is the indicator random variable of \(A\) while \(X\) is the indicator random variable of \(A^c\), cf. Subsection 2.4.2) then \[\begin{align*} \E[X_n-X] &= \E[X_n]-\E[X] \\ &= \P(A)-\P(A^c) \\ &= \frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2} \\ &=0 \end{align*} \tag{2.44}\] (the second equation using Equation 2.21). So for any \(\omega \in \Omega\), the difference/distance between \(X_n(\omega)\) and \(X(\omega)\) is \(1\), but because half the time it is positive and half the time negative, these cancel out and result in Equation 2.44, suggesting a zero distance if we would go down this naive route!
Ok, so we do need to use \(\E[\phi(X_n-X)]\) for some suitable function \(\phi\) rather than just \(\E[X_n-X]\), and we argued around Equation 2.43 that \(\phi(x)=\lvert x \rvert\) is a good choice. But if you think about it, what makes this a good choice basically boils down to two particular properties:
And of course there are many other such functions! Why not use \(\phi(x)=x^2\)? Or more generally \(\phi(x)=\lvert x \rvert^r\) for any \(r \geq 1\)1? Or indeed one of many other possible choices? Well, it turns out that the choice \(\phi(x)=\lvert x \rvert^r\) for any \(r \geq 1\) opens up a whole new treasure trove of beautiful and very powerful maths — not the topic of our course, but just to very briefly outline: with that choice \(\E[\phi(\, . \,)]\) can be used as a proper fully rigorous “measure of distance” i.e. a norm on the quotient space consisting of quotient classes each containing all random variables that are almost surely identical, to form what is called a Lebesgue \(L^r\) space (see e.g. Wiki if you’re interested!)2.
1 Of course, for non-integer values of \(r\) we need that absolute value to avoid ending up with a negative number to a fractional power yielding an imaginary number, as well as for odd values of \(r\) since otherwise the undesirable cancellation would sneak back in!
2 The choice \(r=2\) i.e. using \(\phi(x)=x^2\) results in the Lebesgue \(L^2\) space which has particularly nice properties! I just want to highlight this because you will likely have run into that “squared (or: quadratic) error function” before, be it in Stats or Functional Analysis or in any of many other fields in maths where it pops up. Somehow that guy tends to generate particularly nice structures. We’ll see a little slice of this also in Chapter 4!
Definition 2.37 (Convergence of random variables: in r-th mean/in L^r) Fix some \(r \geq 1\). On some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) (cf. Definition 1.50), if \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) is a sequence of random variables and \(X\) is another random variable, then we say that \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) converges to \(X\) in r-th mean or in \(L^r\) if \[\lim_{n \to \infty} \E \left[ \lvert X_n-X \rvert^r \right]=0.\] We also write this as “\(X_n \stackrel{L^r}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\)”.
There are a few more prominent ones, such as convergence in probability and convergence in distribution. We won’t particularly need these in our course so we won’t explicitly discuss them. Another very interesting question is whether these modes of convergence can be related to each other: that’s pretty obvious for pointwise vs almost sure convergence, but what about pointwise/almost sure convergence vs convergence in \(L^r\)? The seminal Monotone Convergence and Dominated Convergence Theorems connnect these two and will be discussed in the next chapter!
If you’re interested in reading more about/around these modes of convergence, then see for instance Chapter 7 in Grimmett and Stirzaker (1992).
You can now do Exercise 2.12–Exercise 2.14.
Each exercise has a (rough) indication of its difficulty, as follows:
| * | easier: can be solved by (almost) only using relevant definitions/results, |
| ** | medium: in addition to relevant definitions/results, needs a limited amount of work/creativity, |
| *** | harder: in addition to relevant definitions/results, needs a larger amount of work/serious creativity, |
| ⛔ | non-examinable: either very challenging or too much out of scope — these exercises are intended for those of you who relish a bit extra! |
The exam consists of mostly ** and *** level questions, with some * thrown in there for good measure.
A bit of preaching: it is an incredibly important part of the study process to try and work on the exercises as much as possible before the tutorials/without looking at the solutions, both for your understanding and to secure yourself a juicy exam mark! You will get stuck at times, that’s the name of the game for all of us — as the famous mathematician Paul Erdős used to say: a problem worthy of attack, proves its worth by fighting back. :). Use the hints given with many questions/talk to classmates/ask me and try again!
Full & detailed model solutions for the exercises will become available, below the exercises on this page, immediately after our tutorial.
Exercise 2.1 [⛔] Prove Lemma 2.5. (Not too hard!)
Bonus: if we would formulate Lemma 2.5 ii with images rather than inverse images, then it would read “if \(A_1, A_2, \ldots\) is a partition of \(E\), then \(f(A_1), f(A_2), \ldots\) is a partition of \(G\)”. Can you explain why this statement is not generally true?
All you need is the definition of inverse images. For Lemma 2.5 ii, to prove the mutually disjoint property, you could argue by contradiction i.e. assume that they are not mutually disjoint and work towards a consequence that we know to be false.
For Lemma 2.5 i, let’s do the statement that \[f^{-1} \left( \bigcup_{i=1}^\infty B_i \right) = \bigcup_{i=1}^\infty f^{-1}(B_i).\] We could e.g. use the “show both inclusions” strategy (cf. Remark 1.9). If \(x\) is an element of the left hand side, then by def of the inverse image we get that \(f(x) \in \cup_{i=1}^\infty B_i\) and hence there is a \(j \geq 1\) so that \(f(x) \in B_j\). But then, again by def of the inverse image, it follows that \(x \in f^{-1}(B_j)\) and hence \(x\) is also in the union of the \(f^{-1}(B_i)\)’s i.e. of the right hand side. To argue the other inclusion, you can just use this argument again the other way around (all steps are actually “if and only if”).
For Lemma 2.5 ii, following Subsection 1.3.3, we need to show two points: that the collection of subsets \(f^{-1}(B_1), f^{-1}(B_2), \ldots\) covers the whole of \(E\), and that they are mutually disjoint.
For the first point, pick any \(x \in E\). Our function \(f\) maps it to some value \(f(x) \in G\). Since \(B_1, B_2, \ldots\) covers the whole of \(G\), \(f(x)\) must be in \(B_j\) for some \(j \geq 1\). But then, by definition, \(x \in f^{-1}(B_j)\). So indeed \(x \in \cup_{i=1}^\infty f^{-1}(B_i)\).
For the second point, assume that they are not mutually disjoint i.e. that some \(i\) and \(j\) exist so that \(f^{-1}(B_i) \cap f^{-1}(B_j) \not= \emptyset\). Pick some \(x \in f^{-1}(B_i) \cap f^{-1}(B_j)\). The fact that \(x \in f^{-1}(B_i)\) means (by def) that \(f(x) \in B_i\). In the same way it follows that \(f(x) \in B_j\) i.e. \(f(x) \in B_i \cap B_j\). But this is impossible, since \(B_1, B_2, \ldots\) are mutually disjoint we know that \(B_i \cap B_j=\emptyset\), so we have arrived at a contradiction.
Finally for the bonus: this statement fails for instance if \(f\) is not “onto”/surjective, that is if there is some \(y \in G\) that is never visited by \(f\) i.e. if for all \(x \in G\) it holds that \(f(x) \not= y\), because then \(y\) is not an element of any of the \(f(A_i)\)’s and hence the \(f(A_i)\)’s do not cover the whole of \(E\). It can also fail if \(f\) is “many-to-one”/not injective i.e. if \(x_1 \not= x_2 \in E\) exist so that \(f(x_1)=f(x_2)\). If \(x_1 \in A_i\) and \(x_2 \in A_j\) for \(i \not= j\), then \(y \in f(A_i) \cap f(A_j)\) i.e. the \(f(A_i)\)’s are not mutually disjoint. Indeed the bonus statement is only guaranteed to hold if \(f\) is a bijection!
Exercise 2.2 [*] On some universe \(\Omega\), let \(\mathcal{F} \subseteq \mathcal{G}\) be two \(\sigma\)-algebras and \(f:\Omega \to \R\) a function. Show that if \(f\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable, then it is also \(\mathcal{G}\)-measurable.
One liner using Definition 2.6!
Since \(f\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable, we know from Definition 2.6 that for any Borel set \(B \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\) it holds that \(f^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\). But since \(\mathcal{F} \subseteq \mathcal{G}\), then also \(f^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{G}\) for all Borel sets \(B\) and therefore Definition 2.6 shows that \(f\) is also \(\mathcal{G}\)-measurable!
Exercise 2.3 [**] Let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F})\) be a measurable space. Recall that in Example 2.8, Example 2.10 and Example 2.12 we saw that any constant function \(f: \Omega \to \R\) is \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable.
Now let’s investigate the “next step up”: a function \(f: \Omega \to \R\) with a finite range (recall from Definition 2.3), say \(\{y_1,\ldots,y_n\} \subseteq \R\), where we assume that they are listed in order: \(y_1<y_2<\ldots<y_n\). Make a visual of this mapping for yourself as we did in Figure 2.2 & Figure 2.3!
Note (from your visual, or otherwise it also follows from Lemma 2.5 ii) that the inverse images \[A_i := f^{-1}(\{y_i\}) \subseteq \Omega \quad \text{for all } i =1,\ldots,n\] form a partition (cf. Definition 1.23) of \(\Omega\).
For part i, make the visual!! And then use for instance the strategy from Proposition 2.11 i as we also used in Example 2.12. Start with considering \(a<y_1\), next consider \(y_1 \leq a <y_2\) etc.
For part ii, suppose that we do relax the assumption a little bit: say that \(A_j\) for some \(j=1,\ldots,n\) is not an element of \(\mathcal{F}\). Is it then still possible for \(f\) to be \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable? You may find it in this case easier to reason using the def of measurability i.e. Definition 2.6 rather than Proposition 2.11 i!
For part iii, you don’t actually need to do any working/algebra here, it’s purely a matter of combing some relationships. The pieces of the puzzle are, besides parts i & ii of this question: Proposition 2.9, Definition 1.36 and Proposition 1.38.
For part i, we can follow the strategy from Proposition 2.11 i as we also used in Example 2.12 for instance: let \(a\) run from \(-\infty\) to \(\infty\) over the real line in the visual you made (right???) and check that for any \(a\), \(f^{-1}((-\infty,a]) \in \mathcal{F}\). This yields the following:
Etc., with as final one:
For part ii, no the assumption can’t be relaxed. Say that \(A_j=f^{-1}(\{y_j\})\) is not an element of \(\mathcal{F}\). Since the singleton \(\{y_j\}\) is a Borel set (cf. Exercise 1.9 i), for \(f\) to be \(\mathcal{F}\)-measurable we need by very def (cf. Definition 2.6) that \(A_j=f^{-1}(\{y_j\})\) is an element of \(\mathcal{F}\).
Note: you could also argue via Proposition 2.11 i, but going via Definition 2.6 is a bit more straightforward. There is a general principle here: the def Definition 2.6 involves all Borel sets, while Proposition 2.11 i involves a specific subset of Borel sets only. That makes Proposition 2.11 i easier to use to prove measurability (fewer Borel sets to check), but for seeking a contradiction like we’re doing here Definition 2.6 is easier to use because it shows that if the measurability condition fails for any Borel set we’re already done, so we can then choose a Borel set that’s easiest for the situation at hand!
For part iii, recall from Proposition 2.9 that \(\sigma(f)\) is the smallest \(\sigma\)-algebra that makes \(f\) measurable. So from part i and part ii (or, if you prefer, from Equation 2.3) it follows that \(\sigma(f)\) is the smallest \(\sigma\)-algebra which contains \(A_1, \ldots, A_n\) as elements i.e. it’s also the \(\sigma\)-algebra generated by \(A_1, \ldots, A_n\) (cf. Definition 1.36). And since \(A_1, \ldots, A_n\) form a partition of \(\Omega\) as noted in the question, this means that \(\sigma(f)\) has that nice special structure of a finite \(\sigma\)-algebra with \(A_1, \ldots, A_n\) as atoms, as discussed in Proposition 1.38! :).
Exercise 2.4 [*] Let \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) be a probability space, where \(\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{P}(\Omega)\) i.e. the powerset of \(\Omega\). Show that any mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) is a random variable.
This is a very quick one that requires combining definitions only, namely Definition 2.13, Definition 2.6 (or Proposition 2.11 i if you prefer), Definition 2.3 and Definition 1.27.
Recall from Definition 2.13 that for a mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) to be a random variable, it needs to be measurable. And looking at the definition of measurability (cf. Definition 2.6, or use Proposition 2.11 i if you prefer), we need that for any Borel set \(B \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\) it holds that \(X^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\). But the inverse image \(X^{-1}(B)\) is by very def (cf. Definition 2.3) some subset of \(\Omega\), and since \(\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{P}(\Omega)\) contains any possble subset of \(\Omega\) (cf. Definition 1.27), it indeed follows that \(X^{-1}(B) \in \mathcal{F}\).
Exercise 2.5 [*/**] Consider the probability space \(([0,1],\mathcal{B}([0,1]),\P)\), where \(\P\) is the Lebesgue measure. Let the mapping \(X: [0,1] \to \R\) be given by \(X(\omega)=e^\omega\).
For part i, if needs be recall the def of inverse images from Definition 2.3. If you’re not sure how to progress from there, then have a look at Example 2.4 & Example 2.15 where we did similar examples: a function with domain \(\R\). Keep in mind that the domain here is the interval \([0,1]\) only, and use the general advice given there: draw the graph of \(X\) (after all it’s “just” a normal function despite the fact that we use the symbol “\(\omega\)” for its argument rather than the more common “\(x\)” in other contexts) and then sketch \(B\) on the vertical axis to visually see which \(\omega \in [0,1]\) get mapped into \(B\) and are hence the elements of \(X^{-1}(B)\)!
For part ii, follow the strategy based on Proposition 2.11 i as also used in Example 2.12 & Example 2.15 (and Exercise 2.3 above!): let \(a\) run from \(-\infty\) to \(\infty\), at every step considering the inverse image \(X^{-1}((-\infty,a])\) and showing that it is indeed an element of \(\mathcal{B}([0,1])\) (recall that this guy was defined in Definition 1.41). Use the same visualisation as in part i if you’re unsure about some of these inverse images! You should find that there are three different cases to look at: \(a<1\), \(1 \leq a<e\) and \(a \geq e\).
For part iii, don’t look any further than Proposition 2.11!
For part i, recall from Definition 2.3 that for any \(B \subseteq \R\) (in the co-domain of \(X\)), the inverse image is defined as \[X^{-1}(B)=\{ \omega \in [0,1] \, | \, X(\omega) \in B \} \tag{2.45}\] i.e. you’re looking for all \(\omega \in [0,1]\) (which is of course our \(\Omega\) here) that \(X\) maps into \(B\). As pointed out in the hint, get some inspiration from Example 2.4 & Example 2.15 if you’re unsure!
So for \(X^{-1}([1.2,1.7])\) we’re looking for all \(\omega \in [0,1]\) so that \(X(\omega)=e^\omega \in [1.2,1.7]\). Since \(X\) is strictly increasing (and continuous) on the domain \([0,1]\) with \(X(0)=1\) and \(X(1)=e \approx 2.7\), it is readily clear that this is all \(\omega \in [0,1]\) from \(\log(1.2)\) until (incl.) \(\log(1.7)\). So \(X^{-1}([1/4,3/4])=[\log(1.2),\log(1.7)]\). Similarly:
For part ii, Proposition 2.11 i tells us that we need to verify that for any \(a \in \R\) it holds that \(X^{-1}((-\infty,a]) \in \mathcal{B}([0,1])\). As in e.g. Example 2.12 & Example 2.15, we let \(a\) run over the real line (the co-domain of \(X\)) from \(-\infty\) until \(\infty\) and do this verification at each step. As in part i (and pointed out in the hint for that part), you may find drawing the graph of \(X\) and visualising the intervals \((-\infty,a]\) on the vertical axis helpful!
For part iii, we could just appeal to Proposition 2.11 ii!
Exercise 2.6 [**] Let \(X\) be a random variable on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\). Prove the following (well known from our earlier Prob courses!) properties directly from Definition 2.13 (and earlier content).
Observe the crucial line of thinking here: all probabilities in this question are by very def probabilities of inverse images under \(X\) (as explained in Definition 2.13) and hence all the action is really happening in \(\Omega\): events and their probabilities. Further, since \(\P\) is a probability measure, we have many properties available of how it acts on events, recall from Definition 1.50 and Theorem 1.51.
If you’re not entirely clear on how to do this question by yourself, then please do read the hint first to see the structure! Recall the shorthand notation from Definition 2.13.
For part i, observe that the events \(\{ X \in B \}=X^{-1}(B)\) and \(\{ X \in B^c \}=X^{-1}(B^c)\) are disjoint (after all, for any \(\omega \in \Omega\) we can have \(X(\omega) \in B\) or \(X(\omega) \in B^c\), but they can’t both be true!) as well as that \(X^{-1}(B) \cup X^{-1}(B^c)=\Omega\) (after all, any \(\omega \in \Omega\) gets mapped to some real number and hence either to \(B\) or \(B^c\)!). (Alternatively, this also follows from Lemma 2.5 ii).
Hence, by countable additivity (cf. Definition 1.50): \[\P(\Omega)=\P \left( X^{-1}(B) \right)+\P \left( X^{-1}(B^c) \right)\] and since \(\P(\Omega)=1\) (cf. Definition 1.50) the result follows.
For part ii, observe that since \(B_1 \subseteq B_2\), also \(X^{-1}(B_1) \subseteq X^{-1}(B_2)\) (after all, if \(\omega \in \Omega\) satisfies \(X(\omega) \in B_1\) then also \(X(\omega) \in B_2\)!). Hence by Theorem 1.51 i, \[\P \left( X^{-1}(B_1) \right) \leq \P \left( X^{-1}(B_2) \right).\]
Exercise 2.7 [*] Let \(X\) be a random variable on some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\).
Note: although this exercise is a relatively straightforward matter of connecting the dots (I do appreciate it’ll be connecting some abstract dots for a number of you!), its conclusion is extremely powerful and useful: it shows how all the rules you were aware of from earlier Probability courses (and quite possibly some new ones as well) for working with probabilities formulated using random variables follow (rigorously) from the structure we have built, and we can hence freely use these going forward!
All you really need to do is connect the following dots:
This question is trying to provoke the following realisation in you (if that hadn’t taken hold yet): because Definition 2.20 tells us that \((\R,\mathcal{B}(\R),\mu_X)\), with \(\mu_X\) given by Equation 2.11, is a probability space (cf. Definition 1.50), in particular \(\mu_X\) is a probability measure and hence has all the properties that all probability measures have, like all those listed in Definition 1.50 & Theorem 1.51. And via Equation 2.11, all these properties translate directly to probabilities involving \(X\)!
Let’s take Theorem 1.51 ii as one example — where for the general measure space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mu)\) for which Theorem 1.51 is formulated we now specifically plug in \((\R,\mathcal{B}(\R),\mu_X)\): for any Borel sets \(A, B \in \mathcal{B}(\R)\) we have that \[\mu_X(A \cup B)=\mu_X(A)+\mu_X(B)-\mu_X(A \cap B)\] (note that the condition \(\mu_X(A \cap B)<\infty\) is trivially satisfied, since \(A \cap B \subseteq \R\) and \(\mu_X(\R)=1\) since \(\mu_X\) is a probability measure, cf. Definition 1.50). Just translating this using Equation 2.11 immediately yields the well known from earlier Prob courses \[\P(X \in A \cup B)=\P(X \in A)+\P(X \in B)-\P(X \in A \cap B)\] or maybe you’d prefer to write it as \[\P(X \in A \text{ or } X \in B)=\P(X \in A)+\P(X \in B)-\P(X \in A \text{ and } X \in B).\]
Or take the countable additivity from Definition 1.50 ii — where for the general measurable space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F})\) for which Definition 1.50 is formulated we now specifically plug in \((\R,\mathcal{B}(\R))\): if \(A_1, A_2, \ldots\) are mutually disjoint Borel sets, then \[\mu_X \left( \bigcup_{i=1}^\infty A_i \right)=\sum_{i=1}^\infty \mu_X(A_i).\] Again using Equation 2.11, this translates to \[\P \left( X \in \bigcup_{i=1}^\infty A_i \right)=\sum_{i=1}^\infty \P(X \in A_i)\] or maybe you prefer e.g. \[\P \left( X \in A_1 \text{ or } X \in A_2 \text{ or } \ldots \right)=\P(X \in A_1)+\P(X \in A_2)+\ldots.\]
Exercise 2.8 [**] Fix some probability measure \(\mu\) on \((\R,\mathcal{B}(\R))\). Construct a probablity space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) and a random variable \(X: \Omega \to \R\) so that \(X\) has distribution \(\mu\).
Note: what this question shows (and in particular the solution) is that for any distribution you’re interested in, there is a standard and rather simple construction to create a probability space with a random variable which has that distribution that you have selected. This is ultimately also the justification for the many questions you did in earlier Probability courses of the type: “Let \(X\) be a random variable with a Poisson distribution with parameter \(2\). Compute [blahblah]”. Though by very def a random variable can only ever exist in the context of a probability space, in such situations we are only interested in the distribution/“behaviour” of \(X\) on the real line as that’s the only aspect that matters. That is, the choice of the probability space and what mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) exactly is doesn’t matter as long as it results in \(X\) having the desired distribution.
Of course, we then still do need to convince ourselves that a suitable choice of a probability space and mapping \(X: \Omega \to \R\) does exist, even if we’re otherwise not particularly bothered by which of the existing choice(s) is/are used, and that’s sorted by this exercise.
If needs be, have another look at Definition 2.20 to see what the context exactly is again. Although the question may seem quite intimidating, thanks to the work we’ve done already it is actually incredibly straightforward — try the simplest choices for \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\) and \(X\) that you can think of! If the penny doesn’t drop just yet, here is one ingredient of the puzzle for free: consider using the particularly simple and bland random variable we looked at in Example 2.15!
Here is the penny drop: simply mirror the space \((\R,\mathcal{B}(\R),\mu)\) i.e. set \(\Omega=\R\), \(\mathcal{F}=\mathcal{B}(\R)\) and \(\P=\mu\), and then let \(X: \Omega \to \R\) be the identity mapping i.e. \(X(\omega)=\omega\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega=\R\). Then, following Definition 2.20, with \(\mu_X\) denoting the distribution of \(X\), we get for any Borel set \(B\) in the co-domain of \(X\) that \[\mu_X(B)=\P(X \in B)=\P(B)=\mu(B),\] where the first equality is by defnition (cf. Equation 2.11), the final one since by construction \(\P=\mu\), and the second uses that for \(X\) we choose the identity mapping so that \[\begin{align*} \{X \in B\} &= X^{-1}(B) \\ &= \{ \omega \in \Omega=\R \, | \, X(\omega) \in B \} \\ &= \{ \omega \in \Omega=\R \, | \, \omega \in B \} \\ &= B. \end{align*} \]
So indeed the distribution \(\mu_X\) of \(X\) equals \(\mu\) and we’re done. I know!
Exercise 2.9 [**/***] Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be two random variables on some probablity space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\).
Note: we discussed in Subsection 2.3.1 how in (advanced) Probability Theory, for technical reasons we are often forced to work in “almost sure mode” rather than “pointwise mode” but that that is also typically not a problem. This exercise shows one manifestation of this: obviously, any two random variables that are pointwise identical i.e. exactly the same mappings will have the same distribution, but this exercise shows that it is in fact enough for them to be equal in “almost sure mode” only to reach the same conclusion!
For part i, recal that we introduced the “almost sure mode” in Subsection 2.3.1.
For part ii, let \(\Omega_0\) be the almost sure event (cf. Definition 1.55) on which \(X\) and \(Y\) are identical. First look at Definition 2.20 to convince yourself that we what we need to prove is \[\P(X \in B)=\P(Y \in B) \quad \text{for all Borel sets } B \tag{2.46}\] (on the real line i.e. in the co-domain of \(X\) and \(Y\)).
Here is the key idea. Imagine the universe \(\Omega\) being cut up in the two events \(\Omega_0\) and \(\Omega_0^c\). Both events \(\{X \in B\}\) and \(\{Y \in B\}\) can also be cut up in two parts each, one part within \(\Omega_0\) and one part within \(\Omega_0^c\). Now, the parts within \(\Omega_0\) are easy to compare because \(X\) and \(Y\) are identical there, and the parts within \(\Omega_0^c\) don’t matter at all for the purpose of Equation 2.46 since \(\Omega_0^c\) is a null event. Try to translate this key idea into solid maths!
For part i, recall that by very def (cf. Definition 2.13), \(X\) and \(Y\) are mappings from \(\Omega\) to \(\R\). Our natural understanding is that such mappings are identical if \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\) (i.e. just the usual understanding of equality between mappings/functions). This is what we call “pointwise mode”. When we add the qualifier “almost surely” we work in “almost sure mode”, and then we mean a generally slightly weaker statement, namely that an almost sure event \(\Omega_0 \subseteq \Omega\) (i.e. so that \(\P(\Omega_0)=1\), cf. Definition 1.55) exists so that \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega_0\). All of this is discussed in Subsection 2.3.1.
For part ii, assume that \(X\) and \(Y\) are equal almost surely i.e. that an almost sure event \(\Omega_0 \subseteq \Omega\) (i.e. so that \(\P(\Omega_0)=1\), cf. Definition 1.55) exists so that \[X(\omega)=Y(\omega) \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega_0. \tag{2.47}\] Looking at Definition 2.20, observe that \(X\) and \(Y\) have the same distribution if it holds that \[\P(X \in B)=\P(Y \in B) \quad \text{for all Borel sets } B \tag{2.48}\] (on the real line i.e. in the co-domain of \(X\) and \(Y\)).
Fix some Borel set \(B\). Here is the intuitive idea. Recall (from Definition 2.13) that in Equation 2.48, we’re taking probabilities of events/inverse images: \(\{ X \in B \}=X^{-1}(B)\) and \(\{ Y \in B \}=Y^{-1}(B)\). On their own, there is no reason at all why these events/inverse images should have the same probability. However we know from Equation 2.47 that for “almost all” \(\omega \in \Omega\), \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\). So it makes some sense to expect that these two events/inverse images are “almost” identical. If they were identical, then they would trivially have the same probability. Given what we’re asked to show, apparently these two events/inverse images are “almost” identical enough to have the same probability!
Ok, how do we approach this mathematically? Well we know from Equation 2.47 that on the event \(\Omega_0\), \(X\) and \(Y\) are identical and that’s good news for us. The bad news is that we have no control at all on the complement \(\Omega_0^c\), but we do know that that is a null event i.e. \(\P(\Omega_0^c)=0\). So we should aim to use equality of \(X\) and \(Y\) on \(\Omega_0\), and show that we don’t need to care about what happens on \(\Omega_0^c\) as it is a null event.
One way to implement this is by proving the following two steps:
Observe that if we can prove both steps, then Equation 2.48 indeed follows.
Proof of step 1: observe that we can split the event \(\{ X \in B \}\) into a part contained in \(\Omega_0\) and a part contained in \(\Omega_0^c\): \[\{ X \in B \}= \big( \{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0 \big) \cup \big( \{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0^c \big).\] Note that on the right hand side, we have a union of disjoint events (since \(\Omega_0 \cap \Omega_0^c=\emptyset\)). So if we take probabilities of both sides, then we can apply countable additivity (cf. Definition 1.50) to the right hand side and get \[\P(X \in B)=\P(\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0) + \P(\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0^c).\] Now, since \(\Omega_0^c\) is a null event and \(\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0^c \subseteq \Omega_0^c\), using Theorem 1.51 i we see that \[\P(\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0^c) \leq \P(\Omega_0^c)=0\] i.e. \(\P(\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0^c)=0\). So indeed \[\P(X \in B)=\P(\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0).\] Obviously we can swap \(X\) for \(Y\) in the above and get the analogue result for \(Y\).
Proof of step 2: we claim that \(\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0\) and \(\{ Y \in B \} \cap \Omega_0\) are in fact exactly the same event, so that they obviously also have the same probability. To see this, just write out the shorthand a bit and use e.g. the “show both inclusions” strategy from Remark 1.9: \[A_1:=\{ X \in B \} \cap \Omega_0=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, X(\omega) \in B \} \cap \Omega_0\] and \[A_2:=\{ Y \in B \} \cap \Omega_0=\{ \omega \in \Omega \, | \, Y(\omega) \in B \} \cap \Omega_0.\] If \(\omega \in A_1\), then \(X(\omega) \in B\) and also \(\omega \in \Omega_0\) i.e. \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\) (cf. Equation 2.47). Then obviously also \(Y(\omega) \in B\), and \(\omega \in A_2\). The other inclusion is analogous.
Exercise 2.10 [**] Let \(X\) be a continous random variable on some probability space. Show that for any \(x \in \R\), we have that \(\P(X=x)=0\).
Note: on the one hand, each time we execute the experiment, \(X\) takes a value somewhere on the real line (cf. Definition 2.1). Yet on the other hand, this exercise shows that if you put your finger on any particular value on the real line and ask the question “What is the probability that if we execute the experiment, \(X\) ends up exactly on top of my finger?” then the answer is “\(0\)”. That is counterintuitive, in exactly the same way as that the existence of non-empty null events (cf. Example 1.54 & Definition 1.55) is counterintuitive. The reason that it is not an actual contradiction is also exactly the same: the real line is subject to the Dark Forces of Uncountability (cf. Definition 1.16)!
Consider creating a small interval around \(x\) and expressing the probability that \(X\) ends up in that small interval in terms of the cdf of \(X\) (cf. Proposition 2.22). Then use the properties this cdf has on account of the fact that \(X\) is continuous (as discussed in Subsection 2.4.3) to prove the claim.
There is more than one way to do this, here is one option. Fix any \(h>0\). Since \(\{x\} \subseteq (x-h,x+h]\) we have e.g. from Exercise 2.6 ii that \[\P(X=x) \leq \P(X \in (x-h,x+h]). \tag{2.49}\] Further we can write, where \(F\) is the cdf of \(X\) (cf. Proposition 2.22) \[\P(X \in (x-h,x+h])=\P(X \leq x+h)-\P(X \leq x-h)=F(x+h)-F(x-h),\] where for the first equality you can either rely on the general message from Exercise 2.7 or you could more specifically argue using inverse images (writing it in shorthand, cf. Definition 2.13, but as you know well by now, write them out if you find that helpful!): \[\{ X \leq x-h \} \cup \{X \in (x-h,x+h]\}=\{X \leq x+h\}\] and then take probabilities of both sides, using countable additivity (cf. Definition 1.50) for the left hand side.
Ok, so Equation 2.49 becomes \[\P(X=x) \leq F(x+h)-F(x-h).\] As this is true for an arbitrarily chosen \(h>0\), this inequality remains true if we take the limit for \(h \downarrow 0\): \[\P(X=x) \leq \lim_{h \downarrow 0} F(x+h)-F(x-h)\] (general warning/note: recall that weak inequalities, like the one above, remain preserved in a limit but that is not necessarily true for strong inequalities, recall from Exercise 1.2 e.g.!). But since \(X\) is a continuous random variable, we know that \(F\) is a continuous function (recall from Subsection 2.4.3) and hence the above limit equals \(0\) and we are done.
Bonus question: if \(X\) is not a continuous random variable then the conclusion of this exercise does not hold. Nevertheless any random variable has a cdf that is right-continuous (cf. Proposition 2.22). So, apparently, there is no variation of the above proof that holds under the weaker assumption that the cdf is only right-continuous. Can you see why?
Exercise 2.11 [**/***] On some probablity space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), consider two events \(A_1, A_2 \in \mathcal{F}\) and let \(\mathbf{1}_{A_1}\) and \(\mathbf{1}_{A_2}\) be their indicator functions. Prove that the following statements are all equivalent:
Hint: a nice way to show that more than two statements are equivalent is to prove a collection of implications that allows to “walk” from any statement to any other statement. In the case of four statements, that could for instance be i \(\implies\) ii, ii \(\implies\) iii, iii \(\implies\) iv and iv \(\implies\) i.
Recall that independence of events, random variables and \(\sigma\)-algebras are discussed in Section 2.6. Following the four steps suggested in the hint:
i \(\implies\) ii: this is classic one that you may well remember from your earliest Probability courses! Of course use the def from Equation 2.30. To show that for example that \(A_1\) and \(A_2^c\) are also independent, consider cutting up \(A_1\) in two parts: one contained in \(A_2\) and the other contained in \(A_2^c\) i.e. \[A_1= \big( A_1 \cap A_2 \big) \cup \big( A_1 \cap A_2^c \big)\] (indeed, the same trick as we also used in Exercise 2.9!). Then take probabilities of both sides and do a little bit of algebra. Independence of the other pairs can be shown very similarly.
ii \(\implies\) iii: recall that indicator functions/random variables were discussed in Subsection 2.4.2. One option here is to prove that Equation 2.33 holds, for all \(n \in \{0,1\}\) and \(m \in \{0,1\}\) (so four variations in total). If you look carefully at the terms in Equation 2.33, then on the right hand side you see probs of the inverse images we also looked at in Subsection 2.4.2, and either one of those is always one of \(A_1\), \(A_1^c\), \(A_2\) or \(A_2^c\). On the left hand side you also have the prob of an inverse image, involding both indicator functions, and if you write these out a little bit you’ll quickly see that these inverse images are always an intersection of two of the above events. Once you’ve realised all of this, you’ll see that statement ii readily implies that Equation 2.33 indeed holds!
iii \(\implies\) iv: just use Proposition 2.31!
iv \(\implies\) i: observe that using Definition 2.30, it is sufficient to show that \(A_1 \in \sigma(\mathbf{1}_{A_1})\) and \(A_2 \in \sigma(\mathbf{1}_{A_2})\). For this you could e.g. use Proposition 2.9.
Let’s work our way through the three implications suggested in the hint. Recall that all things independence are discussed in Section 2.6!
Step 1, i \(\implies\) ii: assume that \(A_1\) and \(A_2\) are independent events i.e. that \(\P(A_1 \cap A_2)=\P(A_1)\P(A_2)\) (cf. Equation 2.30). To show that \(A_1\) and \(A_2^c\) are also independent, use for instance that we can write \(A_1\) as consisting of two parts, one part inside \(A_2\) and another part inside \(A_2^c\) (indeed the same trick as we also used in Exercise 2.9!) i.e. \[A_1= \big( A_1 \cap A_2 \big) \cup \big( A_1 \cap A_2^c \big).\] Taking probabilities of both sides, using countable additivity (cf. Definition 1.50) for the right hand side: \[\P(A_1)=\P(A_1 \cap A_2)+\P(A_1 \cap A_2^c).\] Using the assumed independence of \(A_1\) and \(A_2\) and the complement rule: \[\P(A_1 \cap A_2)=\P(A_1)\P(A_2)=\P(A_1) \big( 1-\P(A_2^c) \big)\] and plugging this back into the previous equality yields the result.
Independence of \(A_1^c\) and \(A_2\) immediately follows (just swap the roles of \(A_1\) and \(A_2\)). Finally, independence of \(A_1^c\) and \(A_2^c\) can be shown in the same way as above, by starting with the identity \[A_1^c= \big( A_1^c \cap A_2 \big) \cup \big( A_1^c \cap A_2^c \big).\]
Step 2, ii \(\implies\) iii: assume statement ii holds. Recall from Subsection 2.4.2 that both indicator functions are simple discrete random variables with range \(\{0,1\}\). And hence to show independence, using Equation 2.33 it is sufficient to show that for all \(n \in \{0,1\}\) and \(m \in \{0,1\}\) \[\P \left( \mathbf{1}_{A_1}=n \text{ and } \mathbf{1}_{A_2}=m \right)=\P \left( \mathbf{1}_{A_1}=n \right) \P \left( \mathbf{1}_{A_2}=m \right). \tag{2.50}\] First focussing on the right hand side of Equation 2.50, note that (as also discussed in Subsection 2.4.2) there we’re taking probabilities of the inverse images \(\{ \mathbf{1}_{A_1}=1\}=\mathbf{1}_{A_1}^{-1}(\{1\})=A_1\), \(\{ \mathbf{1}_{A_1}=0\}=\mathbf{1}_{A_1}^{-1}(\{0\})=A_1^c\), \(\{ \mathbf{1}_{A_2}=1\}=\mathbf{1}_{A_2}^{-1}(\{1\})=A_2\) and \(\{ \mathbf{1}_{A_2}=0\}=\mathbf{1}_{A_2}^{-1}(\{0\})=A_2^c\). On the left hand side of Equation 2.50, observe that for instance \[\begin{align*} \big\{ \mathbf{1}_{A_1}=1 \text{ and } \mathbf{1}_{A_2}=1 \big\} &= \big\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \big| \, \mathbf{1}_{A_1}(\omega)=1 \text{ and } \mathbf{1}_{A_2}(\omega)=1 \big\} \\ &= \big\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \big| \, \omega \in A_1 \text{ and } \omega \in A_2 \big\} \\ &= A_1 \cap A_2 \end{align*} \] and similarly for other choices of \(n\) and/or \(m\) we always end up with an intersection of one of \(A_1, A_1^c\) with one of \(A_2, A_2^c\).
Now, we see that if we walk through all four possible choices for \(n \in \{0,1\}\) and \(m \in \{0,1\}\) in Equation 2.50 and plug in the above simpifications of the inverse images involved, then we end up with four equations which spell out exactly the conditions for independence of the four pairs mentioned in statement ii. And since we assumed statement ii to hold, we are done.
Step 3, iii \(\implies\) iv: this one is immediate from Proposition 2.31. Just as a bonus, it’s nice to spend a moment thinking about what these \(\sigma\)-algebras look like. Recall that the definition of a \(\sigma\)-algebra generated by a random variable is given in Proposition 2.9. We also have the expression Equation 2.3 which we could very well use to work out their explicit form. However, just for fun, we can rather also appeal to an earlier exercise, namely Exercise 2.3. Note that it fits, because our two indicator random variables have indeed finite range \(\{0,1\}\). Applying part iii of that exercise, we get that \(\sigma(\mathbf{1}_{A_1})\) is the finite \(\sigma\)-algebra with as atoms \(\mathbf{1}_{A_1}^{-1}(\{1\})=A_1\) and \(\mathbf{1}_{A_1}^{-1}(\{0\})=A_1^c\). What would the other elements of this \(\sigma\)-algebra be?? Well indeed, as we already saw in Example 1.40: \[\sigma(\mathbf{1}_{A_1})=\big\{ \emptyset, A_1, A_1^c,\Omega \big\}. \tag{2.51}\] And then of course also \[\sigma(\mathbf{1}_{A_2})=\big\{ \emptyset, A_2, A_2^c,\Omega \big\}. \tag{2.52}\]
Step 4, iv \(\implies\) i: this final one is also nice and straightforward. Assuming that \(\sigma(\mathbf{1}_{A_1})\) and \(\sigma(\mathbf{1}_{A_2})\) are independent, we have by def (cf. Definition 2.30) that if we pick any event from Equation 2.51 and any event from Equation 2.52, then we get an independent pair. So if we pick \(A_1\) from Equation 2.51 and \(A_2\) from Equation 2.52 then statement i follows.
Note: the route we have followed here is not necessarily the most efficient one to solve this exercise. Of course any more efficient route is (also) perfectly fine — I thought that this route gives a nice tour along a number of important techniques & makes things nice and explicit though!
Exercise 2.12 [**] On the probability space \(([0,1],\mathcal{B}([0,1]),\P)\), where \(\P\) is the Lebesgue measure, consider the sequence of random variables \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) given by, for all \(n=1,2,\ldots\) \[X_n(\omega)=\begin{cases} 1/n & \text{if $\omega \in [0,1/2)$} \\ 0 & \text{if $\omega \in [1/2,1]$.} \end{cases} \]
If you’d like some inspiration, then note that this exercise is quite similar to Example 2.36. As suggested there, you can in this case also plot your \(X_n\)’s as in Figure 2.10.
For part i, recall that we discussed the different types of random variables in Subsection 2.4.1–Subsection 2.4.4. What is the range of each \(X_n\)?
For part ii, if you’re unsure then follow the same strategy as in Example 2.36: first investigate what the limit of the sequence of real numbers \(X_1(\omega), X_2(\omega), \ldots\) for a fixed \(\omega \in \Omega=[0,1]\). In this case, you probably want to consider two cases separately: \(\omega \in [0,1/2)\) and \(\omega \in [1/2,1]\).
For part iii, have another quick read of Subsection 2.7.2!
For part iv, first we have to “guess” what we think the limit \(X\) in \(L^r\) is — for this, consider using the same \(X\) for which almost sure convergence worked in part ii. Then it is a matter of verifying that the condition in Definition 2.37 holds. Just work out \[\E \left[ \lvert X_n -X\rvert^r \right]\] using the standard formula Equation 2.18 and then evaluating the limit for \(n\) to \(\infty\) should be straightforward!
For part i, observe that for any \(n=1,2,\ldots\) fixed, \(X_n\) is a random variable which takes one of two possible values, \(0\) and \(1/n\). So its range is \(\{0,1/n\}\) which is in particular finite and hence it is a discrete random variable (cf. Subsection 2.4.1).
For part ii, recall that almost sure convergence is defined in Definition 2.34. We can follow the lead from Example 2.36: for any \(\omega \in \Omega=[0,1]\) fixed, first consider the sequence \(X_1(\omega), X_2(\omega), \ldots\) and investigate whether this sequence of real numbers has a limit in the classic, real numbers sense. If you look at the expression for \(X_n\), it makes sense to distinguish two cases:
So, the conclusion of this little investigation is that for any \(\omega \in \Omega=[0,1]\) fixed, we have that the sequence \(X_1(\omega), X_2(\omega), \ldots\) converges to \(0\). So let’s define the constant random variable \(X=0\). Then it follows that \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) converges even pointwise to \(X\) (cf. Definition 2.33). And from this almost sure convergence of \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) to \(X\) immediately follows (cf. the notes in Definition 2.34). Of course we can also verify this almost sure convergence in a direct way: Definition 2.34 tells us that we need to find an almost sure event \(\Omega_0\) so that Equation 2.38 holds. But the above shows that Equation 2.38 even holds if we choose \(\Omega_0=\Omega=[0,1]\), which is trivially an almost sure event!
For part iii, well of course because, as we discussed in Definition 2.34, almost sure limits are never unique!
For part iv, fix some \(r \geq 1\). Recall that we discussed \(L^r\) convergence in Definition 2.37, and it challenges us to find a random variable \(X\) so that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} \E \left[ \lvert X_n-X \rvert^r \right]=0. \tag{2.53}\] Now, the problem is that contrary to the almost sure convergence case, where we can start sniffing out the situation by considering each \(\omega \in \Omega\) separately, in this situation we haven’t yet discussed how to come up with an “ansatz” i.e. a first guess of what a sensible limit to try could be. However, if an almost sure limit exists it’s a good bet to try that same one as your \(L^r\) limit as well! (The Monotone and Dominated Convergence Theorems in the next Chapter 3 will illuminate this!). So given the work we did in part ii above, let’s try \(X=0\). Plugging that into Equation 2.53, to verify that this is indeed an \(L^r\) limit we need to show that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} \E \left[ \lvert X_n \rvert^r \right]=0. \tag{2.54}\] For this, we just need to work out these expectations and evaluate the limit. For any \(n=1,2,\ldots\) fixed, using that \(X_n\) is a discrete random variable with range \(\{0,1/n\}\) (cf. part i) and the standard formula Equation 2.18 with \(h(x)=\lvert x \rvert\) we see that \[\begin{align*} \E \left[ \lvert X_n \rvert^r \right] &= \lvert 0 \rvert^r \P(X_n=0) + \left\lvert \frac{1}{n} \right\rvert^r \P \left( X_n=\frac{1}{n} \right) \\ &= 0 + \frac{1}{n^r} \P([0,1/2)) \\ &= 0 + \frac{1}{n^r} \frac{1}{2} \\ &= \frac{1}{2n^r}, \end{align*} \] where we used that the inverse image \(\{ X_n=1/n\}\) is the interval \([0,1/2)\) and that \(\P([0,1/2))=1/2-0=1/2\) (cf. Equation 1.19). Since \(1/(2n^r) \to 0\) as \(n \to \infty\), this proves that Equation 2.54 indeed holds and hence we can conclude that indeed \(X_n \stackrel{L^r}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\), where \(X=0\).
Exercise 2.13 [***] On some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), let \(A_1, A_2, \ldots\) be a non-increasing sequence of events, in the sense that \(A_1 \supseteq A_2 \supseteq \ldots\) with “limit event” \(A\) given by \[A= \bigcap_{i=1}^\infty A_i.\] Further we know that \(\P(A_n)=1/n\) for all \(n=1,2,\ldots\).
Define the sequence of random variables \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) as \(X_n=n \mathbf{1}_{A_n}\), where as usual \(\mathbf{1}_{A_n}\) is the indicator function of the event \(A_n\). Further define the constant random variable \(X=0\).
First of all, observe that the definition \(X_n=n \mathbf{1}_{A_n}\) is one in “pointwise mode” (cf. Subsection 2.3.1) and can be worked out to, also using Equation 2.20, \[X_n(\omega)= \begin{cases} n & \text{if } \omega \in A_n \\ 0 & \text{if } \omega \not\in A_n. \end{cases} \]
For part i, as always really, first try to create a mental picture of what is exactly going on. We have events \(A_1, A_2, \ldots\) that gradually shrink towards the event \(A\). If you fix any \(\omega \in \Omega\) outside of \(A\), then from some (possible large) value for \(n\) onwards, we’ll have that \(\omega\) is not an element of any of the \(A_n, A_{n+1}, \ldots\) and hence \(X_n(\omega)=0\), \(X_{n+1}(\omega)=0\), \(\ldots\) so that \(\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=0\). On the other hand, if we fix \(\omega \in \Omega\) inside \(A\), then by def (cf. Equation 1.5) we have that \(X_n(\omega)=n\) for all \(n=1,2,\ldots\) and hence \(\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=\infty\).
Now, on this basis, decide for yourself what a sensible choice/guess for the almost sure event \(\Omega_0\) would be, and then turn the argument into proper maths by showing that Equation 2.38 indeed holds for your choice of \(\Omega_0\), as well as that \(\Omega_0\) is an almost sure event. In the process, you may find Equation 1.5 and Theorem 1.51 handy!
For part ii, just approach and work through this one in the same way as we did in Exercise 2.12 iv above. You should find that \(X_n \stackrel{L^1}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\) does not hold!
For part i, first note that the definition \(X_n=n \mathbf{1}_{A_n}\) is one in “pointwise mode” (cf. Subsection 2.3.1) i.e. should be read as \(X_n(\omega)=n \mathbf{1}_{A_n}(\omega)\) for all \(\omega \in \Omega\), which, if we plug in the def of the indicator function (cf. Equation 2.20) can be further expanded to \[X_n(\omega)= n \cdot \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } \omega \in A_n \\ 0 & \text{if } \omega \not\in A_n \end{cases} = \begin{cases} n & \text{if } \omega \in A_n \\ 0 & \text{if } \omega \not\in A_n. \end{cases} \tag{2.55}\] Note that this situation is a bit more tricky than the one in Exercise 2.12, in particular because the parts of \(\Omega\) where \(X_n\) takes its different values change with \(n\) as well. We’re not one to get scared easily though! Recall from Definition 2.34 that what we need to show is that there exists an almost sure event \(\Omega_0\) so that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=0 \quad \text{for all } \omega \in \Omega_0. \tag{2.56}\]
Now, make a mental picture for yourself: we have events \(A_1, A_2, \ldots\) that gradually shrink towards the event \(A\). If you fix any \(\omega \in \Omega\) outside of \(A\), then from some (possible large) value for \(n\) onwards, we’ll have that \(\omega\) is not an element of any of the \(A_n, A_{n+1}, \ldots\) and hence \(X_n(\omega)=0\), \(X_{n+1}(\omega)=0\), \(\ldots\) so that \(\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=0\). On the other hand, if we fix \(\omega \in \Omega\) inside \(A\), then by def (cf. Equation 1.5) we have that \(X_n(\omega)=n\) for all \(n=1,2,\ldots\) and hence \(\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=\infty\).
Looking again at our objective Equation 2.56, it hence makes most sense to try to make the argument with \(\Omega_0:=A^c\). We’ll then need to prove two steps to wrap things up:
For step 1, fix any \(\omega \in \Omega_0=A^c\). By def, cf. Equation 1.5, there exists an \(i=1,2,\ldots\) so that \(\omega \not\in A_i\). And because the sequence \(A_1, A_2, \ldots\) is non-increasing, this also means that \(\omega \not\in A_n\) for all \(n \geq i\). Hence \(X_n(\omega)=0\) for all \(n \geq i\) and indeed \(\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=0\).
For step 2, we could for instance use Theorem 1.51 v to deduce that \[\P(\Omega_0^c)=\P(A)=\lim_{n \to \infty} \P(A_n)=\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}=0\] so that indeed \(\P(\Omega_0)=1\) (cf. Exercise 1.12 i). Alternatively you could for instance also argue that for any \(n=1,2,\ldots\) fixed we have that (using Exercise 1.1 ii) \[\Omega_0^c=A=\bigcap_{i=1}^\infty A_i \subseteq A_n\] so that by Theorem 1.51 i \[\P(\Omega_0^c) \leq \P(A_n)=\frac{1}{n}.\]
For part ii, recall from Definition 2.37 (with \(r=1\)) that \(X_n \stackrel{L^1}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\) with \(X=0\) means that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} \E \left[ \lvert X_n \rvert \right]=0. \tag{2.57}\] So we need to investigate whether or not this holds. Analogue to Exercise 2.12 iv, we just need to work out the expectation first and then evaluate the limit. Fix some \(n=1,2,\ldots\). Observe from Equation 2.55 that \(X_n\) is a simple discrete random variable (cf. Subsection 2.4.1) with range \(\{0,n\}\) and applying Equation 2.18 with \(h(x)=\lvert x \rvert\) yields \[\begin{align*} \E \left[ \lvert X_n \rvert \right] &= \lvert 0 \rvert \P(X_n=0) + \lvert n \rvert \P \left( X_n=n \right) \\ &= 0 + n \P(A_n) \\ &= 0 + n \frac{1}{n} \\ &= 1, \end{align*} \] where we used that the inverse image \(\{X_n=n\}\) equals \(A_n\) (as Equation 2.55 shows). Alternatively, you could of course use that \(X_n\) is non-negative, that \(n\) is a constant and Equation 2.21 to compute \[\E \left[ \lvert X_n \rvert \right]=\E[X_n]=\E[n \mathbf{1}_{A_n}]=n \E[\mathbf{1}_{A_n}]=n \P(A_n)=1.\] Either way, it follows that \[\lim_{n \to \infty} \E \left[ \lvert X_n \rvert \right]=\lim_{n \to \infty} 1 =1\] and so Equation 2.57 fails to hold i.e. we do not have that \(X_n \stackrel{L^1}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\)!
Exercise 2.14 [**/***] On some probability space \((\Omega,\mathcal{F},\P)\), let \(X_1, X_2, \ldots\) be a sequence of random variables, and \(X\) another random variable so that \(X_n \stackrel{\text{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\). Show that the following two statements are equivalent for any random variable \(Y\) on this space:
Note: this exercise makes firm the non-uniqueness of almost sure limits and exactly how different the possible choices for almost sure limits can be, as also discussed in Subsection 2.7.2!
Observe that the three statements \(X_n \stackrel{\text{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\), \(X_n \stackrel{\text{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow} Y\) as \(n \to \infty\) and \(X=Y\) a.s. each boil down to something happening on an almost sure event, the first two by Definition 2.34 and the final one (“almost sure mode”) by Subsection 2.3.1. So start by defining these three events: \[\begin{align*} A &= \{X_n \to X\}= \left\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \left| \, \lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=X(\omega) \right. \right\}, \\ B &= \{X_n \to Y\}= \left\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \left| \, \lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=Y(\omega) \right. \right\}, \\ C &= \{X=Y\}= \left\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \left| \, X(\omega)=Y(\omega) \right. \right\}. \end{align*} \]
Further I’d suggest to prove the equivalence by proving two implications, per Definition 1.2 iv.
To prove that i \(\implies\) ii, we assume that \(B\) is an almost sure event (in addition to \(A\)) and need to prove that \(C\) is also an almost sure event. For this, the only logical thing to do is to try to relate \(C\) to \(A\) and/or \(B\). Not very difficult! Don’t overdo it, all your relationship needs to do is allow you to conclude that \(C\) is an almost sure event. Don’t forget that you also always have Exercise 1.12 and Theorem 1.51 at your disposal!
The other implication can be done in a very similar way.
Define the following three events: \[\begin{align*} A &= \{X_n \to X\}= \left\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \left| \, \lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=X(\omega) \right. \right\}, \\ B &= \{X_n \to Y\}= \left\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \left| \, \lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=Y(\omega) \right. \right\}, \\ C &= \{X=Y\}= \left\{ \omega \in \Omega \, \left| \, X(\omega)=Y(\omega) \right. \right\} \end{align*} \] and observe that since \(X_n \stackrel{\text{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow} X\) as \(n \to \infty\), from Definition 2.34 we know that \(A\) is an almost sure event.
Now, recall that to prove an equivalence between two statements, a trusted method is to prove both implications separately (cf. Definition 1.2 iv).
i \(\implies\) ii: assume that statement i holds i.e. that \(X_n \stackrel{\text{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow} Y\) as \(n \to \infty\) holds. This means (by Definition 2.34) that \(B\) is also an almost sure event. We need to prove that statement ii holds, i.e. that \(C\) is also an almost sure event (statement ii in the exercise is formulated in “almost sure mode”, recall from Subsection 2.3.1). Clearly, the only way we could possibly do that is by relating \(C\) somehow to \(A\) and/or \(B\). And that’s not very difficult! We claim that \[A \cap B \subseteq C. \tag{2.58}\] Indeed, if \(\omega \in A \cap B\) then \(\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=X(\omega)\) and also \(\lim_{n \to \infty} X_n(\omega)=Y(\omega)\). Key is that we’re looking at limits of real numbers here, and as we know well, limits of real numbers (if they exist) are unique. So it follows that \(X(\omega)=Y(\omega)\) i.e. that \(\omega \in C\).
Now we can look at probabilities. Recall from Exercise 1.12 that \(A \cap B\) is an almost sure event since \(A\) and \(B\) are. Further, applying Theorem 1.51 i to Equation 2.58 yields \[\P(C) \geq \P(A \cap B)=1\] and hence \(C\) is indeed an almost sure event!
ii \(\implies\) i: this works very similar as the previous one. The key set relationship to observe in this case is that \[A \cap C \subseteq B\] and all other details are analoguous.